Entrepreneurship Development Objectives Set 2

1. An individual who starts, creates and manages a new business can be called _____________.

• A leader
• A manager
• A professional
• An entrepreneur

ANSWER: D

2. Trademarks relate to _______.

• Practice and knowledge acquired through experience
• The protection of proprietary information of commercial value
• The right to reproduce ones own original work
• Brand identity

ANSWER: D

3. Which could provide an individual with the motivation to start a new business venture?

• The financial rewards.
• A desire to be independent.
• Risk taking
• All the above.

ANSWER: D

4. Which of the following factors should not be included in PESTLE analysis?

• Government re-cycling policy.
• Proposed reduction in interest rates.
• Competitor activity.
• Demographic changes.

ANSWER: C

5. Which industrial sector promotes small-scale businesses and Entrepreneurship, and has lower barriers to market entry?

• Service.
• Manufacturing.
• Distribution.
• Agriculture.

ANSWER: A

6. Why are small businesses important to a country’s economy?

• They give an outlet for entrepreneurs.
• They can provide specialist support to larger companies.
• They can be innovators of new products.
• All the above.

ANSWER: D

7. A business arrangement where one party allows another party to use a business name and sell its products or services is known as__________.

• A cooperative.
• A franchise.
• An owner-manager business.
• A limited company.

ANSWER: B

8. Which of the following is the reason for business failure __________.

• Lack of market research.
• Poor financial control.
• Poor management.
• All the above.

ANSWER: D

9. The use of informal networks by entrepreneurs to gather information is known as _______.

• Secondary research.
• Entrepreneurial networking.
• Informal parameters.
• Marketing

ANSWER: B

10. Good sources of information for an entrepreneur about competitors can be obtained from_________.

• Websites.
• Product information leaflets.
• Company reports and published accounts.
• All the above.

ANSWER: D

11. A new venture’s business plan is important because ______.

• It helps to persuade others to commit funding to the venture.
• Can help demonstrate the viability of the venture.
• Provides a guide for business activities by defining objectives.
• All the above.

ANSWER: D

12. Primary data is________.

• the most important data.
• the data that is collected first.
• new data specifically collected for a project.
• data that is collected second.

ANSWER: C

13. Innovation can best be defined as_______.

• the generation of new ideas.
• the evolution of new ideas.
• the opposite of creativity.
• the successful exploitation of new ideas.

ANSWER: D

14. Which of these statements best describes the context for entrepreneurship?

• Entrepreneurship takes place in small businesses.
• Entrepreneurship takes place in large businesses.
• Entrepreneurship takes place in a wide variety of contexts.
• Entrepreneurship does not take place in social enterprises.

ANSWER: C

15. Entrepreneurs are motivated by _________.

• money.
• personal values.
• pull influences.
• All the above.

ANSWER: D

16. Which of the following are described as one of the Big Five personality traits?

• tolerance of others.
• need for achievement.
• propensity to leadership.
• locus of control.

ANSWER: B

17. Which of the following is least likely to influence the timing of new business births?

• Government policies.
• Profitability.
• Consumer expenditure.
• Weather conditions.

ANSWER: D

18. Which of the following statements is false?

• Market segmentation is a useful process for small businesses to undertake.
• Selling is essentially a matching process.
• A benefit is the value of a product feature to a customer.
• It is a good idea for small businesses to compete solely on price.

ANSWER: D

19. The purpose of all good small business strategy is__________.

• to increase turnover.
• to increase profitability.
• to achieve competitive advantage.
• to achieve stated objectives.

ANSWER: D

20. Which of the following is a recognized disadvantage of setting up as a start-up as compared with other routes to market entry?

• less satisfaction of the owners.
• less help from various agencies.
• there are more funds required.
• there is a high failure rate.

ANSWER: D

21. Someone legally appointed to resolve the financial difficulties of an insolvent firm is called____________.

• an administrator.
• a predator.
• an auditor.
• a turnaround consultant.

ANSWER: A

22. Goods or services reach the market place through ________.

• marketing channels.
• multilevel pyramids.
• monopolies.
• multiplication.

ANSWER: A

23. To provide financial assistance to entrepreneurs the government has set up a number of___________.

• financial advisors.
• financial intermediaries.
• Industrial estates.
• financial institutions.

ANSWER: D

24. State Industrial corporations engage in the development of__________.

• industrial estates.
• institutional estates.
• individual investors.
• agricultural entrepreneurs.

ANSWER: A

25. ________ is the first development bank of the country.

• ICICI.
• IDBI.
• SFC.
• IFCI.

ANSWER: D

26. IFCI stands for_____________.

• Industrial finance corporation of India.
• Institutional finance corporation of India.
• Industrial funding corporation of India.
• Indian finance corporation and institution.

ANSWER: A

27. IFCI has been converted into a________.

• joint stock company.
• co-operative society.
• partnership firm.
• sole proprietorship.

ANSWER: A

28. SIDBI was set up as a subsidiary of_________.

• IDBI.
• IFCI.
• ICICI.
• SFC.

ANSWER: A

29. Which of the following is a function of SIDBI?

• Extension of seed capital.
• Discounting of bills.
• Providing factoring services.
• All of the above.

ANSWER: D

30. SFC is prohibited from granting financial assistance to any company whose aggregate paid up capital exceed__________.

• 1 crore.
• 1.5 crores.
• 2 crores.
• 2.5 crores.

ANSWER: A

31. SIPCOT’s financial assistance is in the form of __________.

• term loan.
• seed capital scheme.
• underwriting the capital issues.
• All of the above.

ANSWER: D

32. The business development department of SIPCOT guides entrepreneurs in ______.

• applying for licences.
• approval on collaboration.
• allocation of scarce raw materials.
• All the above.

ANSWER: D

33. TIIC is sponsored by the__________.

• Government of Karnataka.
• Government of Andhra Pradesh.
• Government of Kerala.
• Government of Tamil Nadu.

ANSWER: D

34. In backward areas, term loans for expansion or setting up a new unit are available at __________ .

• concessional terms.
• differential terms.
• standard terms.
• specific terms.

ANSWER: A

35. A commercial banker would prefer a ____________ debt-equity ratio over the years as it indicates financial strength of a unit.

• Declining.
• Increasing.
• Stable.
• Fluctuating.

ANSWER: A

36. EDPs course contents contains ___________.

• General introduction to entrepreneurs.
• Motivation training.
• Managerial skills.
• All the above.

ANSWER: D

37. Entrepreneurial Guidance Bureau(EGB) was set up by____________.

• SISI.
• SIPCOT.
• IIC.
• SIDCO.

ANSWER: C

38. _____________ can be defined as a specifically evolved work plan densed to achieve a specific objective within a specific period of time

• Idea generation.
• Opportunity Scanning.
• Project.
• Strategy.

ANSWER: C

39. Large investment is made in fixed assets, the project will be termed as __________.

• Capital Intensive.
• Labour Intensive.
• Product Intensive.
• Market Intensive.

ANSWER: A

40. PERT stands for __________.

• Programme Evaluation and Research Techniques.
• Project Evaluation and Review Techniques.
• Programme Evaluation and Review Techniques.
• Project Evaluation and Research Techniques.

ANSWER: C

41. _____________ is used to accomplish the project economically in the minimum available time with limited resources

• Project Scheduling.
• Network Analysis.
• Budget Analysis.
• Critical Planning.

ANSWER: A

42. ______________ is a form of financing especially for funding high technology, high risk and perceived high reward projects

• Fixed capital.
• Current capital.
• Seed capital.
• Venture capital.

ANSWER: D

43. In _________, machines and equipments are arranged in the order or sequence in which they are to be used for manufacturing the product

• Factory Layout.
• Product Layout.
• Process Layout.
• Combined Layout.

ANSWER: B

44. The term ___________ denotes bonus or financial aid which is given by a government to an industry to help it compete with other units

• Incentive.
• Subsidy.
• Bounty.
• Concession.

ANSWER: C

45. he granting of cash subs idy on the capital investment is called __________.

• Concessional finance.
• Quantum of Subsidy.
• Interest Subsidy.
• Central Investment Subsidy.

ANSWER: D

46. New Small Scale industries are exempted from the payment of income tax under section 80J is called __________

• Development Rebate.
• Investment Allowance.
• Rehabilitation Allowance.
• Tax Holiday

ANSWER: B

47. ____________ is primarily concerned with the identification of the project demand potential and the selection of the optimal technology.

• Techno-economic analysis.
• Feasibility analysis.
• Input analysis.
• Financial analysis.

ANSWER: A

48. _____________ refers to some action which is a time consuming effort necessary to complete a specific event.

• A Network.
• An Activity.
• An Event.
• A Node.

ANSWER: B

49. _____________ is a graphical representation of the various activity and event relating to a project.

• Network analysis.
• Scheduling technique.
• Logical Model.
• Network Diagram

ANSWER: D

50. Activities which must be finished before a given event can occur are termed as _________.

• Preceeding Activities.
• Succeeding Activities
• Concurrent Activities
• Dummy Activities.

ANSWER: A

51. Activities which can be accomplished simultaneously are termed as ___________.

• Preceeding Activities.
• Succeeding Activities.
• Concurrent Activities
• Dummy Activities.

ANSWER: C

52. EST stands for ____________.

• Earliest Start Time.
• Event Start Time.
• Effective Start Time.
• Essential Start Time.

ANSWER: A

53. Additional time which a non-critical activity can consume without increasing the project duration is called _____________.

• Total Float.
• Free Float
• Independent Float.
• Dependant Float

ANSWER: A

54. ______________ is an event-oriented approach.

• CPM.
• GERT.
• PERT.
• WASP.

ANSWER: C

55. _______________ is an activity-oriented approach.

• CPM
• PERT
• GERT
• WASP

ANSWER: A

56. _______________ is the analysis of costs and benefits of a proposed project with the goal of assuming a rational allocation of limited funds.

• Project formulation.
• Project evaluation.
• Project appraisal.
• Project Design.

ANSWER: C

57. ______________ may be defined as the excess of present value of project cash inflows over that of out flows.

• Net present value technique.
• Average rate of return.
• Benefit-Cost ratio.
• Internal rate of return

ANSWER: A

58. Decisions taken by an entrepreneur on behalf of his enterprise are known as _________.

• Organizational decisions.
• Personal decisions.
• Routine decisions.
• Strategic decisions

ANSWER: A

59. Decisions which are concerned with policy matters and exercise fundamental influence on the objectives of the organization are called as____________.

• Organizational decisions.
• Personal decisions.
• Routine decisions.
• Strategic decisions.

ANSWER: D

60. __________________ is a problem -solving technique designed to produce numerous ideas in a short period

• Synectics.
• Delphi technique.
• Brain storming.
• Nominal group technique.

ANSWER: C

61.__________________ is the systematic development of a project idea for the eventual purpose of arriving at an investment decision.

• Project identification.
• Project formulation.
• Project feasibility.
• Project evaluation.

ANSWER: B

62. The process of preparing an inventory of skills needed for effective implementation of the project is called as ____________.

• Economic viability.
• Financial feasibility.
• Technical feasibility.
• Managerial competence.

ANSWER: D

63. _________________ implies the availability or otherwise of plant and machinery and technical know-how to produce the product.

• Economic viability.
• Financial feasibility.
• Technical feasibility.
• Managerial competence

ANSWER: C

64. CPM stands for____________.

• Continuous Path Method.
• Clear Path Method.
• Critical Path Method.
• Critical Probabilistic Method.

ANSWER: C

65. _______________ is granted to small scale units under section 33B of the Income tax act, 1961.

• Depreciation Allowance.
• Development Debate.
• Investment Allowance.
• Rehabilitation Allowance.

ANSWER: D

66. DGTD stands for __________.

• Directorate General of Technical Development.
• District General of Technical Development.
• District General of Taxation Deduction.
• Directorate General of Taxation Deduction.

ANSWER: A

67. A provisional SSI registration certificate is valid for a period of __________.

• four Years.
• three Years.
• two Years.
• one year.

ANSWER: D

68. National Alliance of Young Entrepreneurs (NAYE) Sponsored an Entrepreneurial Development scheme with Bank of India in______________.

• January 1920.
• August 1920.
• January 1972.
• August 1972.

ANSWER: D

69. Which of the following is not one of the 4 Ms?

• motivation.
• management.
• materials.
• money.

ANSWER: C

70. Which of the list below does not form Intellectual Property?

• Trade marks.
• Patents.
• Tangible assets.
• Copyright.

ANSWER: C

71. The ‘T’ in a PESTLE analysis refers to ___________.

• Time.
• Technology.
• Training.
• Talent.

ANSWER: B

72. A business arrangement where one party allows another party to use a business Name and sell its products or services is known as__________.

• A cooperative.
• A franchise.
• An owner-manager business.
• A limited company.

ANSWER: B

73. What is the role of a Business Angel?

• To provide small business advice.
• To provide capital for business development in exchange for a stake in the Business ownership.
• To set up a franchise business.
• To assist an entrepreneur to open a lifestyle business.

ANSWER: B

74. A key aspect of the financial section of the business plan is _________.

• A statement of management skills.
• A realistic sales forecast.
• Production capacity.
• A description of competitors.

ANSWER: B

75. Which one of the following describes unemployment?

• The number of people who voluntarily choose not to work.
• The number of people who are jobless and are actively seeking work.
• The number of people who are not actively seeking work.
• The number of people actively seeking work who find work.

ANSWER: B

76. Idea of new product is tested in potential consumers to determine consumer acceptance at _________ stage.

• Concept.
• Product development.
• Test marketing.
• Commercialization.

ANSWER: C

77. Which one of the following is not considered as one of the building blocks of the model entrepreneur?

• technical skills.
• management competencies.
• business awareness.
• personal attributes.

ANSWER: C

78. Which of the following factors does the macro-environment not include?

• political and regulatory factors.
• customer needs in a given market.
• social and demographic factors.
• technological changes.

ANSWER: B

79. Which of the following statements is false? Electronic commerce:

• can allow new ventures to compete on more or less equal terms with large firms.
• can lead to small businesses having reduced contact with its customers.
• is rarely used in small businesses.
• is used in many different industries and markets.

ANSWER: C

80. Strategic entrepreneurial marketing has been summarised as the 4Is: identification of target markets, interactive marketing methods, informal intelligence gathering and what is the fourth?

• independence.
• instructiveness.
• innovation.
• internet.

ANSWER: C

81. An entrepreneur who owns more than one business at a time is called ________.

• an intrapreneur.
• a corporate entrepreneur.
• a portfolio entrepreneur.
• None of the above.

ANSWER: C

82. Industries producing complete articles for direct consumption & also processing industries is called as_______________.

• Manufacturing industries.
• Feeder Industries.
• Service Industries.
• Mining or Quarrying.

ANSWER: A

83. _____________ is primarily concerned with the identification, qualification and evaluation of the project resources.

• Techno-economic analysis.
• Feasibility analysis.
• Input analysis.
• Financial analysis.

ANSWER: B

84. LOB stands for____________.

• Line of Business.
• Line of Balance.
• Loss of Business.
• Loss of Balance

ANSWER: B

85. Underestimation of project cost leads to ___________.

• Time under run.
• Cost under run
• Time over run.
• Cost over run

ANSWER: D

86. New entrepreneurs entering the field of medium industry for the first time can have market studies with the subsidiary of ___________.

• 75% of the cost or Rs.15000 whichever is less.
• 75% of the cost or Rs.15000 whichever is high
• 50% of the cost or Rs.15000 whichever is less.
• 50% of the cost or Rs.15000 whichever is high

ANSWER: A

87. Decisions which are concerned with policy matters and exercise fundamental influence on the objectives of the organization are called as____________.

• Organizational decisions.
• Personal decisions.
• Routine decisions.
• Strategic decisions.

ANSWER: D

88. Section 80 HHB provides for a deduction of ____________________ of profits and gains earned by a resident Indian company.

• 65%.
• 60%.
• 55%.
• 50%

ANSWER: D

89. Decisions which are non-repetitive and novel nature and required to solve unstructured problem is called as ___________.

• Programmed decisions.
• Non -programmed decisions.
• Routine decisions.
• Strategic decisions.

ANSWER: B

90. The application for registration of a small scale unit should be submitted to the _______ .

• General manager, DIC.
• Director, DIC.
• General manager. NSIC.
• Director, NSIC.

ANSWER: A

91. The type of diversification in which the company adds complementary to the existing product or service line is _________.

• conglomerate diversification.
• horizontal integration.
• vertical integration.
• concentric integration.

ANSWER: C

92. Which of the following is not an aspect of appraisal of term loans by commercial banks?

• Financial feasibility.
• Technical feasibility.
• Economic feasibility.
• Societal feasibility.

ANSWER: D

93. The type of diversification in which the company adds up same type of products at the same level of production is ____________.

• conglomerate diversification.
• horizontal integration.
• vertical integration.
• concentric integration.

ANSWER: B

94. When a firm enters into some business which is related with its present business in terms of technology, marketing or both it is called as _____________.

• conglomerate diversification.
• horizontal integration.
• vertical integration.
• concentric integration.

ANSWER: D

95. When a firm enters into business which is unrelated to its existing business both in terms of technology and marketing ______________.

• conglomerate diversification.
• horizontal integration.
• vertical integration.
• concentric integration

ANSWER: A

96. District Industries Centres are located ____________.

• in each district.
• in each state.
• only in selected districts.
• only in selected states.

ANSWER: A

97. The purpose of soft loan scheme is to encourage units to undertake ___________.

• modernization of plant and machinery.
• replacement of plant and machinery.
• renovation of plant and machinery.
• all the above

ANSWER: D

98. Seed capital assistance ___________.

• a long-term assistance.
• initial assistance
• a help for the purchase of seeds.
• a short-term assistance.

ANSWER: B

99. EXIM bank is a __________.

• State-level institution.
• Regional -level institution.
• All India institution.
• International institution.

ANSWER: C

100. DIC is headed by General Manager in the rank of ___________.

• Joint Director of industries.
• Assistant Director of industries.
• Non-departmental officer.
• Departmental officer.

ANSWER: A

101. Institutional agencies grant financial assistance to small scale industries for _________.

• participation in equity capital only.
• acquisition of fixed assets.
• working capital assistance.
• all of the above.

ANSWER: D

102. Under section 80J of the income tax act, 1961, small-scale industries are exempted from the payment of income tax on their profits at ___________.

• 6% p.a.
• 6% p.m.
• 5% p.a.
• 5% p.a.

ANSWER: A

103. The policy which stressed the role of cottage and small-scale industries for balanced industrial development of the country is ___________.

• IPR 1940.
• IPR 1948.
• IPR 1956.
• IPR 1977.

ANSWER: B

104. The policy which emphasized the need of promoting small-scale industries through integrated industrial development is_____________.

• IPR 1948.
• IPR 1956.
• IPR 1977.
• IPR 1980.

ANSWER: C

105. The small scale unit wishing to export has to obtain exporters code number from _________.

• The Reserve Bank of India.
• The Central Bank of India.
• Any Regional Bank.
• Any International Bank.

ANSWER: A

106. The expenses incurred on the setting up of the enterprise are called as _________.

• Cost of financing.
• Cost of promotion..
• Cost of fixed assets.
• Cost of current assets.

ANSWER: B

107. Over – capitalization arises due to___________.

• excess of assets over the liabilities.
• excess of liabilities over the assets.
• actual earnings are lower than the expected earnings.
• actual earnings are higher than the expected earnings.

ANSWER: C

108. Under-capitalization arises due to __________.

• excess of assets over the liabilities.
• excess of liabilities over the assets.
• actual capitalization is higher than the proper capitalization.
• actual capitalization is lower than the proper capitalization.

ANSWER: D

109. Which of the following leads to over-capitalization?

• acquiring fixed assets on excessive amounts.
• under-estimation of initial rate of earnings.
• using lower-rate of capitalization.
• under estimation of required funds.

ANSWER: A

110. Which of the following leads to under-capitalization?

• raising of more money by issue of shares.
• acquiring fixed assets on excessive amounts.
• over-estimation of earnings for enterprise.
• under-estimation of initial rate of earnings.

ANSWER: D

111. Business means ________.

• Commerce.
• industry and commerce.
• trade and commerce.
• selling and buying of goods.

ANSWER: B

112. A valid definition of a business purpose is to ______.

• create a customer.
• maximize profits.
• serve the society.
• increase the wealth of the firm.

ANSWER: B

113. Reserve bank of India is a/an _______.

• statutory corporation.
• company limited by guarantee.
• company limited by shares.
• unlimited company.

ANSWER: A

114. A public corporation means _____.

• public company.
• government company.
• statutory corporation.
• department of union government

ANSWER: C

115. Promoter is a person who ________.

• takes part in the incorporation of a company .
• is a director.
• is a relative of the managing director.
• works to publicity to the company.

ANSWER: A

116. The term Capitalization is used in relation to ______.

• sole-proprietorship.
• Partnership.
• joint stock companies.
• co-operative societies

ANSWER: C

117. Which of the following sources is not use for medium term financing?

• Issue of equity shares.
• Issue of debentures.
• Term loans from banks.
• Sale of current asset.

ANSWER: A

118. Which of the following securities proves a burden on finances of the company, when company is not earning profits?

• Equity shares.
• Preference shares.
• Redeemable preference shares.
• Debentures.

ANSWER: D

119. Investment in which of the following is most risky?

• Equity shares.
• Preference shares.
• Debentures.
• Land.

ANSWER: C

120. A project, which may not add to the existing profits, should be financed by _________

• debentures.
• preference share capital.
• equity capital.
• public deposits.

ANSWER: A

121. Business risks can be ______.

• avoided.
• reduced.
• ignored.
• erased.

ANSWER: B

122. O & M refers to ____________

• overall efficiency of business.
• efficiency of office and administrative work.
• office work measurement.
• office and management study.

ANSWER: D

123. The oldest form of business organization is ______.

• Partnership.
• sole proprietorship.
• joint stock company.
• co-operative undertaking.

ANSWER: B

124. Memorandum of association of a firm contains _______.

• rules regarding the internal management of the company.
• rules regarding the constitution and activities of the company.
• rules regarding the external management.
• rules regarding the constitution.

ANSWER: B

125. A Company is called an artificial person because ____.

• it does not have the shape of a natural person.
• it cannot be used in the court of law.
• it is invisible and intangible.
• it exists only in contemplation of law.Answer:

ANSWER: C

126. The charter of a company is its ______.

• prospectus.
• statement lieu of prospectus.
• memorandum of association.
• articles of association.

ANSWER: A

127. A person owning and running a small firm, is known as________.

• A manager-owner.
• An owner-manager.
• A professional adapter.
• An enterprise worker.

ANSWER: B

128. Which of the following is a characteristic typical of _________?Most entrepreneurs

• Choose high risk ventures.
• Choose low risk ventures.
• Choose moderate (or calculated) risk ventures.
• Choose no risk ventures.

ANSWER: C

129. The UK government has implemented a number of policies to encourage Entrepreneurship in schools. One such initiative is _________.

• Young Enterprise.
• Youth venture.
• Young Business.
• Young Initiative.

ANSWER: A

130. One of the disadvantages of a franchise business for a franchisee is ________.

• Lack of independence.
• Franchise businesses typically have a high failure rate.
• Lack of brand identity.
• Training is not normally provided by the franchisor.

ANSWER: A

131. The Markets and Competitors section of a business plan should contain ____________.

• A statement of the target market.
• The size of each market segment.
• The key characteristics of buyers in each business segment.
• All the above.

ANSWER: D

132. As a new company grows, the entrepreneur will need to _________.

• be responsive to changes in the market.
• ensure financial controls are maintained.
• build a management team.
• all the above.

ANSWER: D

133. An entrepreneur into the hosiery business found out the reason his hosiery was not selling was due to its color. What could be the best source of this information?

• Supplier.
• Retailer.
• Competition.
• Government bureau.

ANSWER: B

134. Entrepreneurship can best be described as _________.

• a process that requires setting up a business.
• taking a significant risk in a business context.
• having a strong vision.
• a process involving innovation, new products or services, and value creation.

ANSWER: D

135. ____________, which is included in the project cost, is estimated on the basis of the year when the enterprise breaks even.

• working capital
• cost of capital
• cost of production
• cost of equity

ANSWER: A

136. The minimum amount of——————irrespective of such private participation, could be specified at a minimum 17.5 per cent of project costs by lending institutions.

• bank loans
• promotors contribution
• fixed capital
• working capital

ANSWER: B

137. __________ set up for the purpose of financing, facilitating, and promoting foreign trade of India.

• Repco bank
• SBI
• EXIM bank
• HDFC

ANSWER: C

138. Which of the following is not considered to be a characteristic of a project?

• An established objective
• Complex tasks
• A clear beginning and end
• Only for internal use

ANSWER: D

139. Project management is ideally suited for a business environment requiring all of the following except _________.

• Flexibility
• Innovation
• speed
• Repetability

ANSWER: D

140. Integration of project management with the organization takes place with the _______________.

• master budjet
• strategic plan
• Process of managing actual projects
• both b and c

ANSWER: D

141. The content of the final report typically includes the following topics __________.

• Executive summary
• review and analysis
• recommendations
• If all the above are correct.

ANSWER: D

142. Project mission and objectives, procedures and systems used, and organization resources used typically appear in the _____ section of the final project report.

• Analysis
• Recommendation
• lessons learned
• financial feasibility

ANSWER: A

143. what are the components of then project report ________.

• requirement of funds
• location
• manpower
• all the above

ANSWER: D

144. market potential of the project report includes ________.

• demand and supply conditions
• market strategy
• after sales service
• all the above

ANSWER: D

145. Every entrepreneur should draw an _______ for his project to ensure the timely completion of all activities involved in setting up an enterprise.

• cost structure
• implementation plan
• market structure
• production structure

ANSWER: B

146. ______________ describes the direction, the enterprise is going in, what its goals are, where it wants to be,and how it is going to get there.

• project report
• technical anlaysis
• market analysis
• financial analysis

ANSWER: A

147. Today, many companies are using managerial techniques that are designed to encourage _________.

• increasing profits
• legal compliances
• Ethical behaviour
• shareholders value

ANSWER: C

148. Entrepreneurial development is the key to achieve all-round __________ through

• economic development
• increase in profits
• shareholders value
• business development

ANSWER: A

149. Swot Analysis is a _____________ tool

• Conceptual
• Modern
• Scientific
• Traditional

ANSWER: A

150. NABARD is a Bank for _____________ development

• Urban
• Agricultural and Rural
• Scientific
• Agriculture and research

ANSWER: B