Tag: AKTU MBA Objectives Question & Answer

Q1. Which of the following is a definition of the term ‘supply chain’?

1. The way in which information passes from user to procurement supplier
2. The range of suppliers used by a procurement organisation
3. The network of organisations and activities involved with the flow and transformation of goods
4. The types, frequency and organisation of deliveries to the end user

Q2. A primary aim of a procurement professional must be to achieve ………

1. Value for money
2. Stock control
3. Inventory management
4. Outsourcing

Q3. Which of the following is a key part of a decision to outsource?

1. Make or buy
2. Win or lose
3. Buy or sell
4. Pass or fail

Q4. In order to ensure value for money organisations must strive for……..…

1. Timely delivery
2. Efficient and effective administration
3. Short supply chains
4. Inventory management

Q5. Exploiting labour is an example of …

1. Poor ethical practice
2. sound business practice
3. good ethical practice
4. progressive management

Q6. Customers are …

1. an example of an external stakeholder in the supply chain
2. an example of an internal stakeholder in the supply chain
3. not considered to be part of the supply chain
4. responsible for the management of the supply chain

Q7. Costs that are directly attributable to the end product or service are known as what?

1. Capital costs
2. Operational costs
3. Direct costs
4. Indirect costs

Q8. Kaif works for a company that buys in diamonds and creates jewellery. In which sector is Kaif employed?

1. Primary
2. Tertiary
3. Secondary
4. Quaternary

Q9. The end user of beneficiary of a product or service is best described as what?

1. A customer
2. A consumer
3. A supplier
4. A buyer

Q10. Dhoni has a meeting with a business that supplies raw materials to a supplier from which dhoni buys finished products. Dhoni knows that working with suppliers throughout the supply chain can aid transparency. What is the name for the levels of suppliers in a supply chain?

1. Tiers
2. Stages
3. Steps
4. Traders

Q11. What is the terminology used whereby all associated costs of a procurement are taken into consideration?

1. Total cost of buying
2. Total cost of procurement
3. Total cost of purchasing
4. Total cost of ownership

Q12. Which type of function is best suited to being outsourced?

1. High operational performance, high strategic performance
2. High operational performance, low strategic performance
3. Low operational performance, low strategic performance
4. Low operational performance, high strategic performance

Q13. How many stages are there within the procurement cycle?

1. 10
2. 11
3. 12
4. 13

Q14. For many years Lynn has entrusted a strategic supplier to stitch her saddles that she then sells online across the world. Due to financial constraints Lynn has taken the decision to do the needlework (stitching) herself from next month. What is the name of the process whereby Lynn will do something herself that used to be contracted to a supplier?

1. Outsourcing
2. Off shoring
3. Insourcing
4. In shoring

Q15. What is the main purpose of issuing a pre-qualification questionnaire in procurement?

1. To obtain the best price
2. To engage with the most suitable suppliers
3. To achieve the lowest cost
4. To engage with high volume producing suppliers

Q1. Which of the following is the opposite of just in time?

• Stock control
• TQM
• Just in case stock management
• Kaizen

Q2. A drawback to a business of using just in time stock control is:

• High insurance costs
• Stock could quickly become out of date or obsolete
• Storage costs will be high
• Delays in deliveries could result in idle resources

Q3. Which of the following businesses would be best suited to a just in time stock control system?

• Car manufacturer
• Nationwide footwear retailer
• Wholesaler of building supplies
• School uniform retailer

Q4. Which of the following would a new fair trade café consider as the most important factor when considering its choice of suppliers?

• Price
• Reliability
• Flexibility
• Ethical values

Q5. The business term that involves choosing a supplier, agreeing what to buy at a certain price and by when is called:

• Logistics
• Supply chain management
• Stock control
• Procurement

Q6. Which of the following is a benefit to a supplier of consistently delivering products on time?

• Repeat orders
• Lower prices
• Lower storage costs
• Minimal buffer stock held

Q7. Supply chain management is increasingly difficult and complex due to:

• The increased pace of globalization
• The UK’s ageing population
• Economies of scale
• Improvements in communication systems

Q8. Which of the following job roles would be found within the logistics department for a large supermarket chain?

• Customer services manager
• Warehouse manager
• Retail manager
• Human resources manager

Q9. Which area of business will Amazon particularly focus upon to ensure customer deliveries arrive on time?

• Finance
• Sales
• Logistics
• Marketing

Q10. The time difference between a business ordering and receiving stock is called the:

• Reorder quantity
• Lead time
• Buffer stock
• Reorder level

Q11. Which of the following is a main reason why a supplier may be reluctant to supply a new business with stock?

• The quality of the supplies may not meet customer expectations
• The new business may request large volumes of stock
• The new business may demand reasonable prices
• High failure rate of new businesses

Q12. Which of the following is a benefit to a business of having an efficient procurement department?

• Improved levels of customer service
• Increased levels of staff motivation
• Higher sales revenue
• Lower unit costs

Q13. Which of the following is the first stage in a supply chain for a chocolate bar?

• The supplier of cocoa beans
• The manufacturer of the chocolate bar
• Transportation between each stage of the supply chain
• The retailer

Q14. Which of the following is a benefit to a business of reducing its production times?

• It will hold less stock
• It sales will increase
• Its staff will be more motivated
• It could create a competitive advantage

Q15. A business getting good value when buying products means that it will:

• Always get the cheapest price
• Always get the highest quality
• Get the right balance between price and quality
• Charge its customers the lowest price possible

Question 16. The terms purchasing and procurement should not be seen as synonymous. As such, which of the following statements do you think has greatest validity?

• Procurement has a broader meaning than purchasing
• Purchasing has a broader meaning than procurement
• Procurement is broadly equivalent to purchasing
• None of the above

Question 17. The electronic integration and management of all procurement activities including purchase request, authorization, ordering, delivery and payment between a purchaser and supplier is known as:

• E-procurement system
• E-procurement
• E-procurement process
• All of the above

Question 18. The range of potential options for improving purchasing processes are indicated by benefits described by the Chartered Institute of Purchasing and Supply such as:

• Evaluation of end-to-end trading cycles
• Content management
• Multimedia
• All of the above
• None of the above

Question 19. Generally, which sequence is most typical of the procurement process?

• Originator to buyer to approver to supplier
• Originator to approver to buyer to supplier
• Supplier to originator to approver to buyer
• Approver to originator to buyer to supplier
• None of the above

Question 20. E-procurement aims to improve performance of what is known as the ‘five rights of purchasing’. One aim of e-procurement is increasing savings by sourcing items:

• Of the right quality
• At the right price
• Of the right quantity
• From the right source

Question 21. Another aim of e-procurement is increased choice of supplier leading to sourcing items:

• Of the right quantity
• At the right price
• From the right source
• Delivered at the right time

Question 22. A recent simple classification of different types or applications of e-procurement was produced by Smart. Which of the following is NOT one of these?

• E-tendering
• E-informing
• E-sourcing
• E-transparency

Question 23. What is the term used to describe where supply chain partners manage the replenishment of parts or items for sale? They do this through the sharing of information on variations in demand and stock levels for goods used for manufacture or sale.

• Efficient customer response
• Vendor-managed inventory
• E-procurement drivers
• E-business value and stock level grid

Question 24. There are barriers and risks involved in adopting e-procurement. Which of the following is NOT regarded as a risk or barrier?

• Negotiated procurement benefits may be shared with other exchange users who may be competitors
• Possible positive perception from suppliers
• Creation and cost of catalogues
• Competition issues

Question 25. In future, some suggest that the task of searching for suppliers and products may be taken over by a programme which automatically gathers information from the Internet:

• Software intelligent agents
• Metamediaries
• Electronic B2B marketplaces
• Spider search engines

Question 26. Of the following, which is an e-procurement benefit related to budgetary control?

• Reduced purchase cycle
• Rules to limit spending and improved reporting facilities
• Enabling them to concentrate on strategic purchasing issues
• Correcting errors is traditionally a major part of a buyer’s workload

Question 27. Which of the following describes the stock control system element of an e-procurement system?

• Re-ordering is automated when the number in stock falls below re-order thresholds
• Staff in the buying department to enter an order which can then be used by accounting staff to make payment when the invoice arrives
• Integrates the entry of the order by the originator, approval by manager and placement by buyer
• Possible to integrate all e-procurement functionality and may also include integration with suppliers’ systems

Question 28. Production related procurement refers to the purchasing of:

• Furniture
• Information systems
• Office supplies
• Raw materials

Question 29. Negotiated contracts with regular suppliers typically in long-term relationships is an example of:

• MRO sourcing
• Systematic sourcing
• E-procurement
• Spot sourcing

Question 30. Fulfillment of an immediate need, typically of a commoditised item for which it is less important to know the credibility of the supplier is an example of:

• MRO sourcing
• Spot sourcing
• E-procurement
• Systematic sourcing

Question 31. For B2B transactions involved with e-procurement, the merchant site should facilitate:

• Modified rebuys
• Partially complete orders
• Straight rebuys
• Initial purchases
• All of the above

Unit 4: Harmony in Nature and Existence

Bracket is the Answer

159. The participation of the human being in ensuring the role of physical facility in nurture, protection and providing means for the body is called its (Utility value) ___________.

161. The participation of the human being in ensuring the role of physical facility to help and preserve its utility is called its (Artistic value)____________.

162. Between every two units there is (Space)________.

163. When nature is submerged in space we call it (Existence)___________.

164. Nature is (Limited)_________ and while space is (unlimited)_______ in size.

165. When something is active or has activity, we call it a (Unit)________.

166. Space is constant or (Equilibrium)_________ energy.

167. There are two kinds of realities in existence: (Space)_______ and (units)______.

171. Material units have the activities of Recognizing)____ and fulfilling ______

172. Material units are (Temporary)_________ in nature.

173. Co-existence is when (Nature)_________ is submerged in (space)________.

174. The first order of nature is (Material order)____________.

175. The second order of nature is (Plant order)________

176. The third order of nature is (Animal order)____________.

177. The fourth order of nature is (Human order)____________.

178. Parsparta means (Interconnectedness)___________.

179. Paraspar purakta means (Mutually fulfilling)__________.

180. Human beings are dependent on the (Material order)________ for soil, minerals and metals.

181. The natural characteristic of material order (Composition/ decomposition)_________.

182. The basic activities of plant order are (Recognizing and fulfillment)__________.

183. Conformance of material order is named as (Constitution conformance)________.

184. Conformance of plant/ bio order is called (Seed conformance)__________.

185. Conformance of animal order is (Breed conformance)_____________.

186. Conformance of human order is (Right value or sanskara conformance)_______.

187. The cell belongs to (Pranic order)_________ order.

188. In animals only the activity of (Selection/taste)_________ is predominant.

189. The activities in human body are (Composition/decomposition)______ and (respiration)______.

190. (Existence)______ and (growth)________ together are the innateness of the pranic order.

191. The value or participation of different orders in existence is also referred to

as their (Natural characteristics)_______.

192. The fundamental characteristic of material order is (Composition/decomposition)_________.

193. The body of animals and humans belongs to the (Pranic)_______ order.

194. The natural characteristics/svabhava of a human being are

(Perseverance)_______, (bravery)_______ and (genriosity)_______.

195. The continuity of a plant species is maintained in nature by (Seed conformance)_______ method.

196. Human being has (Sanskar)__________ conformance.

197. The systems in nature are (Cyclic)______ and (mutually fulfilling)________.

198. (Nature) __________ is equivalent to the natural world, physical world or material world.

199. There is mutual __________ among the four orders of nature.

200. The four orders of nature are material order, plant order, _____ order and human

order.

Unit 5: Professional Ethics

202. The definitiveness of human conduct in terms of values, policies and character is termed as (Ethics)______.

203. Developing ethical competence in the profession is the only effective way to ensure (Professional ethics)____________.

204. The term ethics has been taken from the Greek word (ethos) _______ which means character.

205. (Ethics) _________ are considered the moral standar ds by which people judge behaviour.

206. (Professional ethics)________ is the implication of(right understanding)_______ in (profession)________.

207. Comprehensive human goal consists of (samadhan) ________, (samridhi)

________, (abhay) ________, and (seh-astitiva) _________.

208. Holistic production systems are eco-friendly and (people – friendly) _________.

True and False

1. Harmony of „I‟ with „body‟ is not possible as they have different needs.

False

2 The body is an instrument of „I‟.

True

3 The „I‟ is the doer, sear and enjoyer.

True

4. Sanyam leads to swasthya and swasthya leads to sukh.

True

5. Value education cannot be rational and has to be based on assumptions.

False

6. The self is an instrument of the body.

False

7 Prosperity in the family is one of the comprehensive human goals.

True

8 Nature has self – regulation.

True

9 Human conduct is definite.

True

10. The course inputs for human values need not be verifiable.

False

11 The self is the doer, not the body.

True

12 Understanding human relationships leads to undivided society.

True

13 There is an inherent struggle and chaos in nature.

False

14 Competence in professional ethics implies the ability to be fulfilling with human being as well as rest of the nature in profession.

True

15 We may differ on many things, but what we respect is free enquiry open mindness, and their pursuit of ideas for their own sake.

True

16 There is an inherent inter connectedness, self-regulation and harmony at all levels of existence and this needs to be discovered by each individual. The whole existence is coexistence. Humans are only a constituent part.

True

17 Humans are scarcely being governed by their preconditioning and sensory experiences and one is generally very eager to relook at them.

True

18 We generally evaluate ourselves on the basis of our intentions and others on the basis of their competence.

True

19 Sanyam is the lack of responsibility in „I‟ towards the body for its nurture, protection and right utilization.

False

20 Living of human being on the basis of physical facilities is called human consciousness.

False

21 To be in harmony is happiness.

True

22 Under evaluation is naturally acceptable in relationship.

False

23 Body is a material unit while the self is a conscious unit.

True

24 Working for unlimited wealth lead to a happy life.

False

25 A human being is nothing but a material body.

False

26. Existence is co-existence.

True

27 Existence in the family is a barrier to harmony in the society.

False

28 Every human being wants to live with definite conduct.

True

29. Value education can be ensured through self-exploration in the human being.

True

25 Imagination includes Desire, Thought and Expectation.

True

26 Respect is the need of the body.

False

27 Fearlessness is one of the comprehensive human goals.

True

28 The plant order is a co-existence of the self and body too.

False

29 Corruption is an unethical practice.

True

30 Prosperity and wealth are equivalent.

False

31 Right understanding forms the basis of definitiveness of human conduct.

True

32 The process of self evolution is self exploration.

True

33 Imaging is the activity of body.

False

34 „Knowing‟ in „Self‟ means having the „Right understanding‟

True

35. Affection is the foundational value in relationship.

False

41 Ensuring right understanding and feelings in the other is called

Guidance.

True

42 The feeling of relatedness to all human beings is called Love.

False

43 Where there is harmony among the parts of the body, it is known as sanyam.

False

44 Activities of body are continuous.

False

45 Sukh is ensured by appropriate physico-chemical things.

False

46 The feeling of acceptance of excellence in the other is called reverence.

True

47 Akhand samaj is the feeling of being related to every human being.

True

48 Justice in family means recognizing and working on nine values of relationship.

True

49. Education – right living leads to fearlessness
    False

50 Society is the second level of living.

False

51 Selecting and desiring are the activities of self.

True

52 Clothing, nourishment are the needs of body.

True

53 „Bhokta‟ means „doer‟

False

54 Conformance of plant/ bio order is called “seed conformance”.

True

Multiple choice questions

1. The purpose of value education is to:

• Foster universal core values.
• Make the syllabus easy.
• Develop values in individuals.
• Both (a) and (c)

ANS: d

2. Self exploration uses two mechanisms natural acceptance and:

• Experiential validation
• Reason
• Logical thinking
• Theoretical concepts.

ANS: a

3. Harmony should be maintained in:

• Between body and life.
• Between self and society
• Between life and environment
• All the above.

ANS d

4. Sah-astitva means:

• Co-existence
• Co-operation
• Cooption
• Corporate identity

ANS: a

5. A harmonious world is created by values at 4 levels.. These are:

• Home, family, society, country.
• Individual, family, society, universe.
• School, home, office, temple
• None of the above

ANS: b

6. Many human values seem good or right due to:

• Positive feelings
• Internal happiness
• Natural acceptance
• All the above

ANS: d

7. Competence in professional ethics refers to:

• Ability to utilize power effectively
• Ability to augment the universal human order.
• Ability to make profit
• Both b and c.

ANS: d

8. An individual people aspiring for the universal human order will be:

• More responsible socially and ecologically
• More rich.
• More powerful
• More well-travelled

ANS: a

9. A country which has transited to the universal human order is likely to have:

• More global trade
• Mutually enriching institutions and organizations.
• More say in the UNO
• None of the above

ANS: a

10. As individual people aspiring for the universal human order will be:

• More rich
• More responsible socially and ecologically.
• More powerful
• More well-travelled

ANS: b

11. Harmony should be maintained in:

• Between body and life
• Between self and society
• Between life and environment
• All the above.

ANS: d

12. Values important for relationship are many they may include:

• Aggression
• Competition
• Integrity and character
• Arrogance

ANS: c

Bracket is in the Answer

1. (Value)________ is our participation at different levels in the larger order.

2. When we participate in the larger order, this participation at different levels is our (Value)________

3. The participation of the human being is seen in two forms: (Behaviour)_______ and (work)______.

4. (Values)______ are the outcome of (Realization)________ and (understanding)

______, which are always definite.

5. By exploring our svatva and living accordingly, we become Svatantra)________.

6. Giving weight age to physical facilities, to the maximization of sensory pleasures, to accumulation of wealth is called (Animal consciousness)___________.

7. (Right understanding)________ helps the human being to transform from

(Animal consciousness)________ to (human consciousness)____

8. There can only be a (Qualitative)__________ change in conscious units.

9. (Society)________ is the third level of living

10. (Individual)________ is the first level of living.

11. (Family)________ is the second level of living.

12. (Nature)________ is the fourth level of living.

13. Self exploration uses two mechanisms– (natural acceptance)_______and (experiential validation)_______.

14. Mechanisms of self exploration are (natural acceptance) ________ and (experiential validation) _______

15. Samridhi means (prosperity) _______________

16. Process of value education has to be that of (self investigation) ________ and (self exploration) ____

17. Prosperity means (health) _________, (wealth) ________ and (wisdom) ______

18. Developed nations are the live example of (prosperity) _______________

19. Happiness, pleasure or joy is the (emotional) _______________ state of being happy.

20. Without truth, caring, concern or love and justice,(conflicts) ________ arise and peace is endangered.

21. Self introspection plays important role to create (harmony) ________ within oneself

22. Self study helps us to know our (weaknesses) ________

23. (Prosperity) ______ is the state to flourishing, thriving, success or good fortune.

24. (Natural acceptance) ________ of (values) ________ will develop (self respect)

______.

25. Universal, rational and verifiable are (guidelines)_______ of (value education)

________

26. The four levels of human living are (self) ______, (family) _____, (society)

_______ and (nature) ____

27. To be in a state of (liking) __________ is (happiness) _________.

28. To be in a state of (disliking) __________ is (unhappiness) _________.

29. The (value) ____ of entity is its participation in larger order.

30. (Self exploration) _____ is a process of (self-evolution) ______ through (self-investigation)______.

31. (Program) ______ and (desire) ________ are the content of (self exploration).

32. (Value education) _________ helps us to correctly identify our (aspirations)

_________.

33. (Technology) ________ is only a means to achieve what is considered valuable for a human being in an effective and efficient manner.

34. Value education leads a human being to (harmony) _________.

35. The content of Value education is expected to include all (dimensions)________ and (levels)_____ of a human being.

36. The process to understand human (value) _________ is self exploration.

37. Prosperity means (health) _________, (wealth) ________ and (wisdom)

38. Developed nations are the live example of (prosperity) _______________

39. Happiness, pleasure or joy is the (emotional) _______________ state of being happy.

40. 20.Without truth, caring, concern or love and justice,(conflicts) ________ arise and peace is endangered

41. Self introspection plays important role to create (harmony) ________ within oneself

42. Self study helps us to know our (weaknesses) ________ and how to remove

43. (Prosperity) ______ is the state to flourishing, thriving, success or good fortune.

44. (Natural acceptance) ________ of (values) ________ will develop (self respect)

______.

45. Universal, rational and verifiable are (guidelines)_______ of (value education)

________

46. The four levels of human living are (self) ______,

47. (family) _____, (society) _______ and (nature) _______.

48. To be in a state of (liking) __________ is (happiness) _________.

49. To be in a state of (disliking) __________ is (unhappiness) _________.

50. The (value) ____ of entity is its participation in larger order.

51. (Self exploration)_____ is a process of (self evolution)______ through (self

investigation)______.

52. (Program) ______ and (desire) ________ are the content of (self exploration).

53. (Value education) _________ helps us to correctly indentify our (aspirations)

_________.

54. (Technology) ________ is only a means to achieve what is considered valuable for a human being in an effective and efficient manner.

55. Value education leads a human being to (harmony) _________.

56. The content of Value education is expected to include all (dimensions)________ and (levels)_____ of a human being.

Unit 2: Harmony in Self

57. Knowing means having the (Right understanding)________.

58. Each human being is co-existence of the (Self (I))______ and the body)_______.

59. The (body)__________ does not assume things.

60. (Sanyam)_______ is the feeling of responsibility for nurturing, protecting and right utilizing the body.

61. Where there is harmony among the parts of the body,it is known as

(Swasthya)________.

62. (Sanyama)________ is the basis of (Swasthya)_______

63. (Sanyam)_________ is vital for the (Swathya)_______

64. With the help of the (Body)_______, self explores and interact with rest of the nature.

65. The system of the body works in a (Self organized) __________ way.

66. Human body is an instrument to facilitate (Right understanding) ______.

67. The self is (Conscious)______ in nature while body is (Physico-chemical)

_______ in nature.

68. The basic capacity of self is known as (Power)___________.

69. The power/capacity for selecting/tasting is (Expectation)___________.

70. (Expectation)________ is the capacity of (Selecting/tasting)_________.

71. The self and body interacts with each other via the activity of (Selecting/tasting)_________.

72. The flow of activity of (Selecting/tasting)___________ can leads to (thoughts)

________.

73. The capacity of (thoughts)__________ could lead to (desires) _________.

74. The activity of desires, thoughts and expecting, together is called as (imagination)

75. ________.

76. We make choices with external world, based on our (imagination) _________ today.

77. Imaging is __________ (continuous) with time.

78. The activity of Selecting/tasting is (continuous) ___________

79. What we analyze may keep changing, the activity of analyzing is (continuous)

________

80. When we assume something about on the prevailing notion it is called (preconditioning)__________

81. (realization) __________ means to be able to see the reality as it is.

82. What we really want to be is our (natural acceptance) _______________

83. We can have (right understanding) _______ through the process of (realization)

_______

84. Behaviour on the basis of (realization and understanding) ______ is called (self

organized behaviour) ____

85. Human being is co-existence of (self and body) _______________.

86. The self or I is also called (consciousness) _______________

87. Clothing, nourishment etc are the needs of (body) _______________

88. Trust, respect, happiness etc are the needs of (self) _______________

89. The needs of the self are (continuous) ________ in time and needs of body are (temporary) _____

90. Needs of the body are temporary while the needs of the self are __________.

91. Physical facilities are required in (limited) _______________ quantity.

92. If the needs are naturally acceptable I want them (continuously) _______________

93. The needs of (self) _____ are (qualitative) ______ in nature and we want them continuously

94. The needs of the body are ensured by (physico-chemical) _________ things.

95. The needs of the self are ensured by (right understanding) ______ and (right feeling)

96. _________

97. By (right understanding) __________ we become responsible to ourselves.

98. Choosing and imaging are the activities of (self) ______.

99. Recognition and fulfillment between (material entities) _______is always (definite) _______.

100. In I (self), recognizing and fulfillment depends on(assuming) ______________.

101. The activity of fulfillment depends on the (recognition) _______________

102. Knowing means we have the (right understanding) _______________

103. Any entity that has the activity of recognizing and fulfillment only can be called as (material entity) _____.

104. The feeling of prosperity is the need of (self) _______________.

105. Physical facilities are the need of the (body) _______________

106. Selecting and desiring are the activities of (self)_______________.

107. I am the (seer) ________, (doer) _______ and (enjoyer) _______

108. The (Body) ____________ is an (instrument) ___________ of (I – self)

___________.

109. The requirements of body are (nutrition) _____, (protection) _____ and (right utilization)

110 . ______

111. (Seer) ______ means the one that understands.

112 . The awareness of being is in (I) _______________

113. Seer is also called (drashta) __________ or Drishta refers to (seer) ___________

114. Doer is also called (karta) ____________ or Karta refers to (doer)

_______________

115. Enjoyer is also called (bhokta) __________ or Bhokta refers to (enjoyer)

116 . _______________

117. In relationship we want (mutual fulfillment) _______________

118. From physical facilities we want (prosperity) _______________

119 . Swasthya leads to (sukh) _________

120. Sanyam represent (self control) ________

121. Swastya refers to (health) ________

122. Unit 3: Harmony in Family and Society

123. Education- right living leads to (Right understanding)______________.

124. The process of education and right living leads to (Right understanding)________ in the individual.

125. The program for health and sanyam leads to feeling of (Prosperity)_________ in family.

126. Ensuring justice in relationship, on the basis of values leads to

(Fearlessness)________ in society.

127. Suraksha of nature via enrichment protection and right utilization leads to

(Co-existence)_______ in nature.

128. Production and work for physical facilities leads to (Prosperity)_____ in family and (co-existence)_____with nature.

129. (Trust)________ is the foundational value in relationship

130. The foundational value in relationship is (Trust)_______.

131. The ability to fulfill the aspirations is called (Competence)________.

132. To be assured of others at all the time is the feeling of (Trust)_______.

133. (Respect)________ means (Right evaluation) ________

134. Any belief in terms of „thought system‟ that we have or that we have adopted is called (Ism‟s)_____.

135. The feeling that other is related to me is called (Affection)__________.

136. The feeling to nurture and protect the body of our relative is called

(Care)________.

137. Ensuring right understanding and feelings in the other is called (Guidance)___________.

138. Acceptance of excellence in others is called (Reverence)__________.

139. (Glory)________ is the feeling for someone who has made efforts for excellence.

140. (Gratitude)________ is the feeling of acceptance for those who have made efforts for my excellence.

141. (Love)_________ is a complete value.

142. The feeling of relatedness to all human beings is called (Affection)_______.

143. Society is an extension of (Family)_________.

144. (Family)________ is the basic unit of human interaction.

145. We are all similar at the level of our (Intension)_________ but differ in

our (Competence) ___________

146. Employing the body physically for production and maintenance of physical

facilities is called (Labour)__________.

147. There is justice in relationship when there is (Mutual fulfillment)_______.

148. The four gems of trust are (effective listening)______, (empathy)_____,

(justice)_____

149. and (honesty)____.

150. She-astitva means (co-existence) _______________

151. Abhay means (fearlessness) _______________

152. (Competence)_________ is the ability to perform a specific task action or function successfully

153. In healthy relationship, I learn to (respect)_______ and (trust)_____ important people in our life

154. The commitment is the only aspect that actually strengthens the (relationship)_________

155. (Education) _________ means the (vision) ________

156. The problems in our relationship with various entities are due to our (assumptions) ____.

157. Comprehensive human goal is right understanding, prosperity, fearlessness and ______.

41. A context diagram is used

A) As the first step in developing a detailed DFD of a system

B) In systems analysis of very complex systems

C) As an aid to system design

D) As an aid to programmer

42. Which of the following is/are the sources for project requests?

A) Request from Department managers

B) Request from senior executives

C) Request from system Analyst

D) All of the above

43. DDS stands for …………………

A) Data Data Systems

B) Data Digital System

C) Data Dictionary Systems

D) Digital Data Service

44. ………….. Phase is a time consuming phase and yet a very crucial phase

A) Feasibility Study

B) Requirement Phase

C) Analysis Phase

D) Testing Phase

45. A DFD is normally leveled as

A) It is a good idea in design

B) It is recommended by many experts

C) it is easy to do it

D) It is easier to read and understand a number of smaller DFDs than one large DFD

46. ………………. is responsible for all aspects of data processing, operation research, organization and method, system analysis and design investments.

A) Management Services Director

B) Data Processing Manager

C) Computer Manager

D) Both B and C

47. ……………… is a tabular method for describing the logic of the decisions to be taken.

A) Decision tables

B) Decision tree

C) Decision Method

D) Decision Data

48. In ……………… system the interaction between various subsystems cannot be defined with certainty

A) Open System

B) Closed System

C) Deterministic System

D) Probabilistic System

49. State True or False.

• Term of reference is the final output of Feasibility Study
• Design specification report is the final output of System Analysis

A) 1-true, 2-true

B) 1-false, 2-true

C) 1-true, 2-false

D) 1-false, 2-false

50. The key considerations involved in the feasibility analysis is include

i) Economical ii) Technical iii) Behavioral iv) Personal

A) i, ii, iv

B) i, ii, iii

C) ii, iii, iv

D) All of the above

51. ……………………. refers to the collection of information pertinent to systems project.

A) Data gathering

B) Data Exporting

C) Data Embedding

D) Data importing

52. A physical DFD

A) Has no means of showing material flow

B) Does not concern itself with material flow

C) Can show only stored material

D) Can show the flow of material

53. Development costs for a computer based information system includes……………………

A) Salaries of the system analysis

B) Cost of converting and preparing data

C) Cost of testing and documenting

D) All A, B, C

54. Before developing a logical DFD it is a good idea to

A) Develop a physical DFD

B) Develop a system flow chart

C) Determine the contents of all data stores

D) Find out user’s preferences

55. A data store in a DFD represents

A) A sequential file

B) A disk store

C) A repository of data

D) A random access memory

55. Which of the following is/are major step/s of system design?

A) Specification of system output

B) Development of system flowchart

C) Development of program specifications

D) All A, B, C

57. A data flow can

A) Only enter a data store

B) Only leave a data store

C) Enter or leave data store

D) Either enter or leave a data store but not both

58. ………………… means coordinated effort, to communicate the information of the system in written form.

A) System Documentation

B) System Storage

C) System Record

D) System Share

59. Some of the tools which are available with the system analysis are………………..

A) Review of Documentation & Observation of the situation

B) Conducting Interviews & Questionnaire Administration

C) Both A & B

D) Review of Procedure & Conducting Interviews

60. Data cannot flow between two data stores because

A) It is not allowed in DFD

B) A data store is a passive repository of data

C) Data can get corrupted

D) They will get merged

61. Which of the following is not the characteristics of a system?

(A) Organization

(B) Interaction

(C) Interdependence

(D) Feedback

Answer: D

62. Which of the following determines whether the project should go forward?

(A) Feasibility Assessment

(B) Opportunity Identification

(C) System Evaluation

(D) Program Specification

Answer: A

63. Which of the following is not a type of system tests?

(A) Program Testing

(B) System Testing

(C) System Documentation

(D) Evaluation Process

Answer: D

64. Which of the following is not a fact-finding technique?

(A) Third party enquiry

(B) Interview

(C) Questionnaire

(D) Record reviews

Answer: A

65. Cost-Benefit Analysis is performed during.

(A) Analysis phase

(B) Design phase

(C) Feasibility study phase

(D) Implementation phase

Answer: C

66. Which of the following is not considered a tool at the system Design phase?

(A) Data-Flow Diagram

(B) Decision Table

(C) Pie chart

(D) System Flowchart

Answer: C

67. Which phase of the SDLC are information needs identified?

(A) Preliminary investigation

(B) Systems analysis

(C) Systems design

(D) Systems development

Answer: A

68. The first step in preliminary analysis is to

(A) Purchase supplies

(B) Hire consultants

(C) Define the problem

(D) Propose changes

Answer: C

99. The first step of the systems analysis phase of the SDLC is to

(A) Propose changes

(B) Analyze data

(C) Gather data

(D) Write system analysis report

Answer: C

70. The final step of the systems analysis phase in the SDLC is to

(A) Gather data

(B) write system analysis report

(C) Propose changes

(D) analyze data

Answer: B

71. A feasibility study is used to determine the proposed systems.

(A) Resource requirements

(B) Costs and benefits

(C) Availability of hardware and software

(D) All of the above

Answer: D

72. Which of the following phases of the SDLC is considered as the “ongoing process”?

(A) Systems development

(B) Systems analysis

(C) Systems design

(D) Systems maintenance

Answer: D

73. During a systems audit, the system performance is compared to

(A) Similar systems

(B) Newer systems

(C) The design specifications

(D) Competing systems

Answer: C

74. A graphic representation of an information system is called

(A) Flow Chart

(B) Pictogram

(C) Data flow diagram

(D) Histogram

Answer: Data Flow Diagram

75. A system is a collection of interrelated components that function together to achieve some outcome

(A) True

(B) False

(C) Can’t Say

(D) None

Answer: True

76. Design Phase is followed by

(A) Initial investigation

(B) Feasibility study

(C) Analysis

(D) Implementation

Answer: D

77. A system that is part of a larger system is called a

(A) Subsystem

(B) System unit

(C) System element

(D) None of these

Answer: A

78. ……………….. Includes review of the existing procedures and information flow.

(A) Feasibility Study

(B) Feasibility report

C) System Design

(D) System analysis

Answer: A

79. CBA stands for

(A) Cost Base Analysis

(B) Cost Basic Analysis

(C) Cost Benefit Analysis

(D) None of these

Answer: C

80. The primary activity of a system developer is programming

(A) True

(B) False

(C) Can’t Say

(D) None of these

Answer: B

1. ……………….. includes review of the existing procedures and information flow.

A) Feasibility Study

B) Feasibility report

C) System Design

D) System analysis

2. A rectangle in a DFD represents

A) a process

B) a data store

C) an external entity

D) an input unit

3. …………….. refers to the collection of information pertinent to systems Project.

A) Data transfer

B) Data gathering

C) Data Embedding

D) Data Request

4. ………………….. means coordinated effort, to communicate the information of the system written form.

A) System documentation

B) Resource required

C) Development schedule

D) User Document

5. MDP stands for

A) Master Development Plan

B) Master Design Program

C) Mandatory Database Program

D) Master Database Plan

6. External Entities may be a

A) Source of input data only

B) Source of input data or destination of results

C) Destination of results only

D) Repository of data

7. …………………. is a group of interested components working together towards a common goal by accepting inputs and producing outputs in an organized transformation process.

A) System

B) Network

C) Team

D) System Unit

8. To create vehicle of information to provide evidence in the development process and to monitor the process. This is one of the objectives of

A) Analysis

B) Design

C) Development

D) Documentation

9. A …………. System is no more than idea

A) Conceptual

B) Logical

C) Physical

D) All of the above

10. By an external entity we mean a

A) Unit outside the system being designed which can be controlled by an analyst.

B) Unit outside the system whose behavior is independent of the system being designed

C) A unit external to the system being designed

D) A unit which is not part of a DFD

11. …………………………. is an important factor of management information system.

A) System

B) Data

C) Process

D) All

12. Which are the following is / are the level(s) of documentation?

A) Documentation for management

B) Documentation for user

C) Documentation for data processing department

D) All of the above

13. ………………………….. Level supply information to strategic tier for the use of top Management.

A) Operational

B) Environmental

C) Competitive

D) Tactical

14. In a DFD external entities are represented by a

A) Rectangle

B) Ellipse

C) Diamond shaped box

D) Circle

15. …………… can be defined as data that has been processed into a form that is meaningful to the recipient and is of real or perceive value in current or prospective decisions.

A) System

B) Information

C) Technology

D) Service

16. Use the new system as the same time as the old system to compare the results. This is known as ……

A) Procedure Writing

B) Simultaneous processing

C) Parallel Operation

D) File Conversion

17. Decision making model was proposed by ………………….

A) Harry Goode

B) Herbert A Simon

C) Recon Michal

D) None of this

18. A data flow can

A) Only emanate from an external entity

B) Only terminate in an external entity

C) May emanate and terminate in an external entity

D) May either emanate or terminate in an external entity but not both

19. …………… can be defined as most recent and perhaps the most comprehensive technique for solving computer problems.

A) System Analysis

B) System Data

C) System Procedure

D) System Record

20. SDLC stands for

A) System Development Life Cycle

B) Structure Design Life Cycle

C) System Design Life Cycle

D) Structure development Life Cycle

21. ………… is a sort of blueprint of the system Development Effort.

A) MDP

B) DMP

C) MPD

D) DPM

22. Data store in a DFD represents.

A) A sequential file

B) A disk store

C) A repository of data

D) A random access memory

23. …………… system consists of programs, data files and documentation

A) Conceptual

B) Logical

C) Physical

D) None of the above

24. …………… is a good example of deterministic system.

A) Life cycle

B) Computer Program

C) Software Program

D) None of the above

25. The main ingredient of the report documenting the ……………… is the cost benefit analysis.

A) System Analysis

B) Feasibility Study

C) System Analyst

D) System Design

26. A data flow can

A) Only a data store

B) Only leave a data store

C) Enter or leave a data Store

D) Either enter or leave a data store but not both

27. Changing the relationship with and services provided to customers in such a way that they will not think of changing suppliers is called ………….

A) Lock in Customers

B) Lock out customers

C) Lock in competitors

D) Lock out competitors

28. …………… can be defined as data that has been processed into a form that is meaningful to the recipient and is of real or perceived value in current or prospective decisions.

A) Information

B) Data collection

C) Internal data

D) Sample data

29. Increased volume of sales is an example of ………….…. Benefit. Reduction of bad debts is an example of ………..

A) Tangible, Intangible

B) Tangible, Tangible

C) Intangible, Tangible

D) Intangible, Intangible

30. A data cannot flow between a store and

i) a store ii) a process iii) an external entity

A) i and iii

B) i and ii

C) ii and iii

D) ii

31. A ……………… system in no more than idea.

A) Conceptual

B) Logical

C) Physical

D) None

32. Design Phase consists of …………………….

1. Identity the functions to be performed
2. Design the input/output and file design
3. Defining basic parameters for system design

A) 1 & 2

B) 2 & 3

C) 1 & 3

D) 1, 2 & 3

33. A context diagram

A) Describes the context of a system

B) is a DFD which gives an overview of the system

C) is a detailed description of a system

D) is not used in drawing a detailed DFD

34. HIPO stand for

A) Hierarchy input process output

B) Hierarchy input plus output

C) Hierarchy plus input process output

D) Hierarchy input output Process

35. Statement of scope and objectives, opportunities and performance criteria ………….

A) Problem definition

B) System analysis

C) System Design

D) Documentation

36. Information can be categorized into …………….

1. Environmental information
2. Competitive information
3. Government information
4. Internal information

A) 1, 2 & 3

B) 1, 2 & 4

C) 2, 3 & 4

D) 1, 3 & 4

37. System Development process is also called as ……………..

A) System Development Life Cycle

B) System Life Cycle

C) Both A and B

D) System Process Cycle

38. The output of problem definition stage is ……………..

A) Master Development Plan

B) Terms of reference

C) Feasibility report

D) Final product

39. Advantages of system flowcharts ………………….

A) Effective communication

B) Effective analysis

C) Queasier group or relationships

D) All A, B, C

40. Based on the identification of objectives, input, output and file content, the vital document is called….…

A) System Definition

B) System Document

C) System Requirement Document

D) System Subject

1. A top to bottom relationship among the items in a database is established by a ______

(A) Network Schema

(B) Relational Schema

(C) Hierarchical Schema

(D) None of the above

Answer

(C) Hierarchical Schema

2. Aggregation is a special form of _______

(A) Specialization

(B) Association

(C) Generalization

(D) None of the above

Answer

(B) Association

3. In E-R Diagram, _________ represents Key Attribute.

(A) Ellipse with underlying line

(B) Rectangle with underlying line

(C) Double rectangle

(D) None of the above

Answer

(A) Ellipse with underlying line

4. Which TCL command is used to permanently save any transaction into database?

(A) rollback

(B) savepoint

(C) commit

(D) None of the above

Answer

(C) commit

5. Which TCL command restores the database to last committed state?

(A) rollback

(B) savepoint

(C) commit

(D) None of the above

Answer

(A) rollback

6. _______ is used to control privilege in Database.

(A) Data Manipulation Language

(B) Data Definition Language

(C) Data Query Language

(D) Data Control Language

Answer

(D) Data Control Language

7. Which model remains operative until the software is required?

(A) Waterfall model

(B) Incremental model

(C) Prototyping model

(D) Spiral model

Answer

(D) Spiral model

8. In oracle, which tablespace is the minimum required when creating a database?

(A) System tablespace

(B) Undo tablespace

(C) temporary tablespace

(D) None of the above

Answer

(A) System tablespace

9. Which of the following is another name for weak entity?

(A) Dominant

(B) Child

(C) Owner

(D) None of the above

Answer

(B) Child

10. ODBC is based on ________

(A) C++ language

(B) RDBMS

(C) Structured Query Language

(D) C language

Answer

(C) Structured Query Language

11. OLAP stands for_____

(A) Online Arithmetic Processing

(B) Online Analysis Processing

(C) Online Analytical Processing

(D) None of the above

Answer

(C) Online Analytical Processing

12. The _____ operation allows the combining of two relations by merging pairs of tuples, one from each relation, into a single tuple.

(A) Join

(B) Intersection

(C) Union

(D) None of the above

Answer

(A) Join

13. ________is the multiplication of all the values in the attributes.

(A) Set difference

(B) Cartesian product

(C) Intersection

(D) None of the above

Answer

(B) Cartesian product

14. Which command is used to remove a relation from an SQL database?

(A) Delete

(B) Remove

(C) Drop

(D) None of the above

Answer

(C) Drop

15. In SQL, the spaces at the end of the string are removed by _______ function.

(A) Lower

(B) String

(C) Trim

(D) None of the above

Answer

(C) Trim

16. ________ is used to save permanently any transaction into database.

(A) commit

(B) rollback

(C) savepoint

(D) None of the above

Answer

(A) commit

17. A unit of storage that can store one or more records in a hash file organization is denoted as_______

(A) Bucket

(B) Disk pages

(C) Blocks

(D) Nodes

Answer

(A) Bucket

18. Which of the following operator used for appending two strings?

(A) %

(B) &

(C) +

(D) ||

Answer

(D) ||

19. The management information system (MIS) structure with one main computer system is called a________

(A) Decentralized MIS structure

(B) Distributed MIS structure

(C) Centralized MIS structure

(D) None of the above

Answer

(C) Centralized MIS structure

20. The highest level in the hierarchy of data organization is called________

(A) data base

(B) data file

(C) data record

(D) None of the above

Answer

(A) Data base

21. ________ allows a unique number to be generated when a new record is inserted into a table.

(A) Insert into Select

(B) Insert Into

(C) Select Into

(D) Auto Increment

Answer

(D) Auto Increment

22. Which of the following constraint is used to limit the value range that can be placed in a column?

(A) Check

(B) Default

(C) Unique

(D) None of the above

Answer

(A) Check

23. A Foreign key in one table points to a ________ key in another table.

(A) Alternate

(B) Default

(C) Primary

(D) None of the above

Answer

(C) Primary

24. Domain constraints, functional dependency and referential integrity are special forms of_________.

(A) Foreign key

(B) Primary key

(C) Referential constraint

(D) Assertion

Answer

(D) Assertion

25. 4NF stands for ______

(A) Fourth Normal File

(B) Fourth Normal Form

(C) Fourth Normal Fraction

(D) Fourth Negative File

Answer

(B) Fourth Normal Form

26. Which of the following field type is used to store photograph of employees?

(A) Memo

(B) Picture

(C) OLE

(D) Photo

Answer

(C) OLE

27. _______ statement is used in conjunction with the aggregate functions to group the result-set by one or more columns.

(A) Select

(B) Group By

(C) Distinct

(D) None of the above

Answer

(B) Group By

28. Which of the following method can be used to add more tables in a database?

(A) Design View

(B) Table Wizard

(C) Both (A) & (B)

(D) None of the above

Answer

(C) Both (A) & (B)

29. Which of the following field type is the best to store serial numbers?

(A) Number

(B) Auto Number

(C) Text

(D) Memo

Answer

(B) Auto Number

30. The feature that database allows to access only certain records in database is______

(A) Queries

(B) Reports

(C) Forms

(D) Tables

Answer

(A) Queries

Q1. What do you mean by one to many relationship between Teacher and Class table?

1. One class may have many teachers
2. One teacher can have many classes
3. Many classes may have many teachers
4. Many teachers may have many classes

Q2. What are the different view to present a Table?

1. Datasheet View
2. Design View
3. Pivote Table View
4. All Of Above

Q3. In one-to-many relationship the table on ‘many’ side is called _______

1. Parent
2. Child
3. Sister
4. Master

Q4. In which state one gathers and list all the necessary fields for the database design project.

1. Data Definition
2. Data Refinement
3. Establishing Relationship
4. None of The Above

Q5. Which of the following enables us to view data from a table based on a specific criterion.

1. Form
2. Query
3. Macro
4. Report

Q6. Which database object is ideal to view, change, and analyze detain different ways ?

1. Table
2. Form
3. Query
4. Report

Q7. In one-to-many relationship the table in ‘one’ side is called _______

1. Child
2. Owner
3. Parent
4. Owner

Q8. Which data type allows alphanumeric characters and special symbols to be entered?

1. Text
2. Memo
3. Auto number
4. Mixed

Q9. It is used to establish an association between related tables.

1. Line
2. Relationship
3. Primary Key
4. Records

Q10. This key that uniquely identifies each record is called:

1. Primary Key
2. Key Record
3. Unique Key
4. Field Name

Q11. Which name must be unique within a database?

1. Table
2. Field
3. Record
4. Character

Q12. The third stage of designing a database is when we create___________ between tables

1. Relationship
2. Join
3. Query
4. None of These

Q13. Two tables can be linked with relationship to _____

1. Ensure data entry
2. Ensure data integrity
3. Create Primary Key
4. Ensure Foreign Key

Q14. In a database Table, the each category of information is called __________

1. Tuple
2. Field
3. Record
4. All Of Above

Q15. Which of the following fields has width of 8 bytes?

1. Memo
2. Number
3. Date/Time
4. Hyperlink

Q16. Which of the following is not a database object?

1. Tables
2. Queries
3. Relationships
4. Reports

Q17. Which one is the guideline of Referential integrity in a relationship?

1. Do not enter a value in the primary key field of child table if that value does not exist in the primary key of the parent table
2. Do not enter a value in the foreign key field of a parent table if that value doesnot exist in the primary key of the child table
3. Do not enter a value in the foreign key field of a child table if that value does not exist in the primary key of the parent table
4. Do not enter a value in the foreign key field of child table if that value does not exist in the foreign key of the parent table

Q18. Which of the following is not a database model

1. Network Database Model
2. Relational Database Model
3. Object Oriented Database Model
4. None

Q19. The overall description of a database is called______.

1. Data integrity
2. Data manipulation
3. Database schema
4. Data definition

Q20. A data dictionary is a repository that manages _____

1. Memory
2. Metadata
3. Spell Checker
4. Data Validator

21. A collection of conceptual tools for describing data, relationships, semantics and constraints is referred to as……….

(A) Data Model

(B) E-R Model

(C) DBMS

(D) All of the above

Answer

(A) Data Model

22. Dr.E.F. Codd represented ……. rules that a database must obey if it has to be considered truly relational.

(A) 10

(B) 15

(C) 14

(D) 12

Answer

(D) 12

23. In E-R Diagram, weak entity is represented by…….

(A) Rectangle

(B) Square

(C) Double Rectangle

(D) Circle

Answer

(C) Double Rectangle

24. An entity that is related with itself is known as…….

(A) binary relationship

(B) Recursive relationship

(C) ternary relationship

(D) None of the above

Answer

(B) recursive relationship

25. ……. is a bottom-up approach in which two lower level entities combine to form a higher level entity.

(A) Aggregation

(B) Specialization

(C) Generalization

(D) None of the above

Answer

(C) Generalization

26. An entity set that does not have sufficient attributes to form a primary key, is a………

(A) Primary entity set

(B) Weak entity set

(C) Strong entity set

(D) None of the above

Answer

(B) Weak entity set

27. Which SQL command delete all the records and does not remove the structure?

(A) Drop

(B) Insert

(C) Truncate

(D) None of the above

Answer

(C) Truncate

28. Which of the following is a Data Definition Language (DDL) command?

(A) Delete

(B) Insert

(C) Drop

(D) Merge

Answer

(C) Drop

29. In…….. Database, data is organized in the form of trees with nodes.

(A) Hierarchical

(B) Relational

(C) Network

(D) None of the above

Answer

(A) Hierarchical

30. Which command is used to retrieve records from one or more table?

(A) Delete

(B) Insert

(C) Drop

(D) Select

Answer

(D) Select

31. Rows of a relation are called ________

(A) entity

(B) degree

(C) Tuples

(D) None of the above

Answer

(C) tuples

32. The number of tuples in a relation is termed as ______

(A) Cardinality

(B) entity

(C) column

(D) None of the above

Answer

(A) cardinality

33. In SQL, Which of the following is a Data Manipulation Language (DML) command?

(A) create

(B) alter

(C) Merge

(D) drop

Answer

(C) merge

34. ……… is a top-down approach in which one higher level entity can be divided into two lower level entities.

(A) Aggregation

(B) Specialization

(C) Generalization

(D) None of the above

Answer

(B) Specialization

35. Which of the following is not a type of database?

(A) Hierarchical

(B) Relational

(C) Network

(D) Transition

Answer

(D) Transition

36. In a relational database, each tuple is divided into fields called_______

(A) Relations

(B) Domains

(C) Queries

(D) None of the above

Answer

(B) Domains

37. In E-R Diagram, attribute is represented by…….

(A) Rectangle

(B) Square

(C) Double Rectangle

(D) eclipse

Answer

(D) eclipse

38. In SQL, TCL stands for______

(A) Transmission Control Language

(B) Transaction Central Language

(C) Ternary Control Language

(D) Transaction Control Language

Answer

(D) Transaction Control Language

39. Which of the following is a part of the Oracle database system?

(A) Free lists

(B) Front end

(C) Network

(D) None of the above

Answer

(B) Front end

40. Which of the following is used with database?

(A) ATM

(B) Payment gateway

(C) Data Mining

(D) None of the above

Answer

(C) Data Mining

41. 4 The language used in application programs to request data from the DBMS is referred to as the ______

(A) DML

(B) DDL

(C) DCL

(D) None of the above

Answer

(A) DML

42. In Oracle, who owns the data dictionary?

(A) DBA

(B) SYS

(C) SYSTEM

(D) None of the above

Answer

(B) SYS

43. In SQL, which command is used to update existing row in a table?

(A) Insert

(B) Delete

(C) Update

(D) None of the above

Answer

(C) Update

44. A ________ contains the smallest unit of meaningful data, so you might call it the basic building block for a data file.

(A) Record

(B) Field

(C) Table

(D) None of the above

Answer

(B) Field

45. A relation between two entities is treated as a single entity is called__________

(A) Aggregation

(B) Specialization

(C) Generalization

(D) None of the above

Answer

(A) Aggregation

46. Data mining evolve as a mechanism to cater the limitations of _______ systems to deal massive data sets with high dimensionality.

(A) OLAP

(B) OLTP

(C) DWH

(D) None of the above

Answer

(B) OLTP

47. In Relational table, the term “Attribute” is also used to represent _______

(A) row

(B) Column (or) field

(C) entity

(D) None of the above

Answer

(B) column (or) field

48. Which of the following categories of the data integrity RDBMS will enforce specific business rules?

(A) Entity Integrity

(B) Domain Integrity

(C) User-Defined Integrity

(D) None of the above

Answer

(C) User-Defined Integrity

49. E-R Modeling technique is a _______

(A) Top-down approach

(B) bottom-up approach

(C) User-Defin

(D) None of the above

Answer

(A) top-down approach

50. The number of attributes in a relation is called its _____

(A) row

(B) column

(C) Degree

(D) None of the above

Answer

(C) degree

Q1. Which of the following is the primary cause of noise in the communication process?
A) A lack of cultural empathy
B) ineffective listening skills
C) the speaker’s attributions
D) an individual’s life space

Q2. Trust most likely improves cross-cultural communication by ________.
A) Enabling managers to network effectively
B) Replacing formal legal contracts for global firms
C) Encouraging the open exchange of ideas and information
D) Eliminating all variables that hinder the communication process

Q3. If you assume that every member of a society or subculture has the same characteristics or traits, you are guilty of ________.

A) Attribution
B) Stereotyping
C) Cultural noise
D) Kinesics behavior

Q4. Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons that language frequently causes miscommunication during international business situations?

A) Being unable to speak a local language

B) Translating a local language too literally

C) Missing meanings conveyed through body language

D) Assuming that others use similar reasoning processes

Q5. Which of the following will most likely be emphasized by an instrumental communicator?

A) Persuasion

B) Message Content

C) Body Language

D) Emotions

Q6. Posture, gestures, facial expressions, and eye contact are examples of ________.

A) Kinesic Behavior

B) Proxemics

C) Paralanguage

D) Oculesics

Q7. A person working in a high-contact culture will most likely experience which of the following?

A) Co-workers spending time together socially

B) Managers using hand motions to express emotion

C) Managers speaking to subordinates quickly and rudely

D) Co-Workers greeting each other with a double handshake

Q8. The considerable variation between Americans and Chinese in the use of silence during meetings is an aspect of ________.

A) Proxemics

B) Haptics

C) Paralanguage

D) Object Language

Q9. Which of the following is a true statement?

A) Monochronic cultures experience time in a linear way; polychronic cultures view time as having a past, present, and future.

B) Monochronic cultures treat time as a tool for bringing order to life; polychronic cultures tolerate many events occurring simultaneously.

C) Monochronic cultures experience time in a non-linear way; polychronic cultures view time as having a past, present, and future.

D) Monochronic cultures tolerate many events occurring simultaneously; polychronic cultures treat time as a tool for bringing order to life.

Q10. Which of the following is NOT true about monochronic cultures?

A) Time is viewed as something to be spent.

B) Monochronic people change plans frequently.

C) Monochronic people focus on one task at a time.

D) Short-term relationships are normal and acceptable.

Q11. Which of the following is the most accurate statement concerning the role of context in cross-cultural communication?

A) In high-context cultures, the message is implicit; in low-context cultures, the message is explicit.

B) In high-context cultures, there is a low sensory involvement; in low-context cultures, there is a high sensory involvement.

C) In high-context cultures, the message is explicit; in low-context cultures, the message is implicit.

D) In high-context cultures, there is a high sensory involvement; in low-context cultures, there is a low sensory involvement.

Q12. International managers working in the Middle East should do all of the following for effective communication EXCEPT ________.

A) Conducting business personally

B) Being flexible regarding schedules

C) Expressing doubts in group settings

D) Taking time to form friendships