Micro Economics Content MCQ Objectives with Answer

What is the difference between microeconomics and macroeconomics?

a) Microeconomics studies the behavior of individual consumers, while macroeconomics examines the overall performance of the economy.

b) Microeconomics focuses on the long-run, while macroeconomics deals with short-term economic fluctuations.

c) Microeconomics analyzes the economy as a whole, while macroeconomics studies individual markets.

d) Microeconomics is concerned with government policies, while macroeconomics examines consumer behavior.

Answer: a) Microeconomics studies the behavior of individual consumers, while macroeconomics examines the overall performance of the economy.

 

What are the basic problems of an economy?

a) Scarcity, inflation, and unemployment

b) Choice, inflation, and opportunity cost

c) Scarcity, choice, and opportunity cost

d) Unemployment, inflation, and government intervention

Answer: c) Scarcity, choice, and opportunity cost

 

Which concept explains that individuals make decisions by comparing marginal benefits to marginal costs?

a) Marginalism

b) Incrementalism

c) Elasticity of demand

d) Consumer surplus

Answer: a) Marginalism

 

What is the primary determinant of price and quantity in a competitive market?

a) Government regulations

b) Consumer preferences

c) Market forces of supply and demand

d) Cost of production

Answer: c) Market forces of supply and demand

 

What is the measure of the responsiveness of quantity demanded to a change in price?

a) Income elasticity of demand

b) Price elasticity of demand

c) Consumer surplus

d) Marginal utility

Answer: b) Price elasticity of demand

 

Which type of demand elasticity indicates that a change in price leads to a proportionate change in quantity demanded?

a) Unitary elastic demand

b) Inelastic demand

c) Elastic demand

d) Perfectly elastic demand

Answer: a) Unitary elastic demand

 

What does the Engel curve represent in consumer behavior analysis?

a) The relationship between income and consumption of a normal good

b) The relationship between price and quantity demanded of a product

c) The relationship between income and consumption of an inferior good

d) The relationship between consumer surplus and producer surplus

Answer: a) The relationship between income and consumption of a normal good

 

Which pricing strategy involves setting the selling price based on the cost of production plus a desired profit margin?

a) Target pricing

b) Marginal cost pricing

c) Cost-plus pricing

d) Going rate pricing

Answer: c) Cost-plus pricing

 

What is the concept that infers a consumer’s preferences based on their observed choices in the market?

a) Consumer surplus

b) Marginal utility

c) Revealed preference theory

d) Price consumption curve

Answer: c) Revealed preference theory

 

Which type of market structure has many sellers offering differentiated products?

a) Monopoly

b) Oligopoly

c) Perfect competition

d) Monopsony

Answer: c) Perfect competition

 

What is the equilibrium price in a competitive market?

a) The price set by the largest seller in the market

b) The price at which quantity demanded equals quantity supplied

c) The highest price that consumers are willing to pay

d) The price determined by the government regulations

Answer: b) The price at which quantity demanded equals quantity supplied

 

What does the term “elasticity of demand” measure?

a) The responsiveness of supply to a change in price

b) The responsiveness of quantity demanded to a change in price

c) The responsiveness of demand to changes in consumer income

d) The responsiveness of quantity supplied to changes in production costs

Answer: b) The responsiveness of quantity demanded to a change in price

 

Which of the following factors influences the elasticity of demand?

a) Consumer income

b) Price of substitutes

c) Population size

d) Government policies

Answer: b) Price of substitutes

 

What is the concept of “consumer surplus”?

a) The difference between the price consumers are willing to pay and the actual price they pay in the market

b) The difference between the total cost of production and the total revenue generated by a firm

c) The difference between the total revenue and total cost of a product in the market

d) The difference between the price producers are willing to receive and the actual price they receive in the market

Answer: a) The difference between the price consumers are willing to pay and the actual price they pay in the market

 

Which utility concept suggests that consumer satisfaction can be measured numerically?

a) Marginal utility

b) Cardinal utility

c) Ordinal utility

d) Total utility

Answer: b) Cardinal utility

 

Which of the following is an example of a fixed factor of production?

a) Labor

b) Raw materials

c) Machinery

d) Office supplies

Answer: c) Machinery

 

In the long run, a firm experiences economies of scale when:

a) Its total costs decrease with an increase in production.

b) Its average costs increase with an increase in production.

c) Its marginal costs increase with an increase in production.

d) Its total costs remain constant with an increase in production.

Answer: a) Its total costs decrease with an increase in production.

 

The law of variable proportions applies in the:

a) Long run, where all inputs are variable.

b) Short run, where at least one input is fixed.

c) Long run, where all inputs are fixed.

d) Short run, where all inputs are variable.

Answer: b) Short run, where at least one input is fixed.

 

Which of the following best defines “marginal rate of technical substitution”?

a) The rate at which the total cost changes with a change in output.

b) The rate at which one input can be substituted for another while keeping output constant.

c) The rate at which the total utility changes with a change in consumption.

d) The rate at which the price of one good changes with a change in the price of another good.

Answer: b) The rate at which one input can be substituted for another while keeping output constant.

 

Which pricing strategy involves setting the selling price based on the cost of production and a desired profit margin?

a) Marginal cost pricing

b) Cost-plus pricing

c) Target pricing

d) Going rate pricing

Answer: b) Cost-plus pricing

 

What is the equilibrium price in a monopoly market?

a) The price set by the government to regulate the market

b) The price determined by the monopolist based on their production cost

c) The price where the quantity demanded equals the quantity supplied

d) The price at which the monopolist maximizes their profit

Answer: d) The price at which the monopolist maximizes their profit

 

In which market structure does a small number of firms dominate the market and may engage in collusion or competition?

a) Oligopoly

b) Perfect competition

c) Monopsony

d) Monopoly

Answer: a) Oligopoly

 

What is the main objective of demand forecasting?

a) To determine the production cost of goods

b) To estimate the demand for substitute products

c) To predict future changes in supply

d) To estimate future demand for goods and services

Answer: d) To estimate future demand for goods and services

 

Which of the following is NOT an approach to demand forecasting?

a) Survey method

b) Time series analysis

c) Regression analysis

d) Consumer preference method

Answer: d) Consumer preference method

 

Which of the following factors influences the price elasticity of demand?

a) The availability of substitutes

b) Government regulations

c) Advertising expenditure

d) Cost of production

Answer: a) The availability of substitutes

 

What does the concept of “income elasticity of demand” measure?

a) The responsiveness of quantity demanded to a change in consumer income

b) The responsiveness of quantity demanded to a change in price

c) The responsiveness of quantity supplied to a change in consumer income

d) The responsiveness of quantity supplied to a change in price

Answer: a) The responsiveness of quantity demanded to a change in consumer income

 

Which of the following elasticity values represents a perfectly elastic demand?

a) 0

b) 1

c) Infinity (∞)

d) 0.5

Answer: c) Infinity (∞)

 

What is the expansion path in production theory?

a) The path that shows the expansion of supply in the market

b) The path that shows the relationship between inputs and outputs in the short run

c) The path that shows the relationship between inputs and outputs in the long run

d) The path that shows the increase in quantity demanded in the market

Answer: c) The path that shows the relationship between inputs and outputs in the long run

 

Which cost includes both explicit and implicit costs?

a) Accounting cost

b) Opportunity cost

c) Fixed cost

d) Variable cost

Answer: b) Opportunity cost

 

What does the term “diseconomies of scale” refer to?

a) When the average cost of production remains constant as output increases

b) When the average cost of production decreases as output increases

c) When the average cost of production increases as output increases

d) When the marginal cost of production decreases as output increases

Answer: c) When the average cost of production increases as output increases

 

Which of the following pricing strategies involves setting the selling price based on the prices set by competitors?

a) Marginal cost pricing

b) Cost-plus pricing

c) Target pricing

d) Going rate pricing

Answer: d) Going rate pricing

 

What is the key characteristic of a perfectly competitive market?

a) Many buyers and sellers

b) Product differentiation

c) High barriers to entry

d) Price-setting power for individual firms

Answer: a) Many buyers and sellers

 

What does the concept of “revealed preference theory” suggest?

a) Consumers reveal their preferences through surveys and interviews.

b) Consumers’ actual choices in the market reflect their true preferences.

c) Consumers’ preferences can be inferred from their income levels.

d) Consumers’ preferences are constant and do not change over time.

Answer: b) Consumers’ actual choices in the market reflect their true preferences.

 

What is the primary determinant of price and quantity in a monopolistic competition market?

a) Market demand and supply

b) Government regulations

c) The individual firm’s demand and supply

d) The number of firms in the market

Answer: c) The individual firm’s demand and supply

 

Which of the following statements is true about the long-run average cost curve in a competitive market?

a) It is U-shaped due to economies of scale.

b) It is downward sloping due to diseconomies of scale.

c) It is horizontal due to constant returns to scale.

d) It is upward sloping due to diseconomies of scale.

Answer: c) It is horizontal due to constant returns to scale.

 

What is the concept of “marginal rate of technical substitution” (MRTS)?

a) The rate at which one input can be substituted for another while keeping output constant.

b) The rate at which a firm’s total cost changes with a change in output.

c) The rate at which the market price of a good changes with a change in consumer income.

d) The rate at which a firm’s total revenue changes with a change in output.

Answer: a) The rate at which one input can be substituted for another while keeping output constant.

 

What does the “law of returns to scale” state?

a) As a firm increases its output, its average cost decreases due to economies of scale.

b) As a firm increases its output, its average cost increases due to diseconomies of scale.

c) As a firm increases its output, its average cost remains constant due to constant returns to scale.

d) As a firm increases its output, its marginal cost decreases due to economies of scale.

Answer: c) As a firm increases its output, its average cost remains constant due to constant returns to scale.

 

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a monopoly market?

a) A single seller with significant market power

b) High barriers to entry

c) Identical products sold by different firms

d) Price-setting power for the monopolist

Answer: c) Identical products sold by different firms

 

What is the primary objective of “demand forecasting”?

a) To estimate the future production cost of goods

b) To predict the changes in government policies

c) To estimate the future demand for goods and services

d) To determine the future supply of raw materials

Answer: c) To estimate the future demand for goods and services

 

What is the term used for the difference between the maximum price a consumer is willing to pay and the actual price they pay for a product?

a) Marginal utility

b) Consumer surplus

c) Producer surplus

d) Elasticity of demand

Answer: b) Consumer surplus

 

In which market structure does a single seller have significant market power?

a) Oligopoly

b) Perfect competition

c) Monopsony

d) Monopoly

Answer: d) Monopoly

Basics of Actuarial Science MCQ Objectives with Answer

What does the “Time value of money” concept imply?

a) Money should be spent as soon as received

b) Money available today is worth more than the same amount in the future

c) Money has a fixed value over time

d) Money should always be invested in stocks

Answer: b) Money available today is worth more than the same amount in the future

 

Which factor influences the future value of an investment?

a) Time

b) Principal amount

c) Interest rate

d) All of the above

Answer: d) All of the above

 

What is the process of determining the present value of future cash flows called?

a) Compounding

b) Discounting

c) Amortization

d) Accumulation

Answer: b) Discounting

 

What is an ordinary annuity?

a) A series of regular cash flows occurring at the beginning of each period

b) A series of regular cash flows occurring at the end of each period

c) A one-time lump-sum payment

d) A series of irregular cash flows

Answer: b) A series of regular cash flows occurring at the end of each period

 

What is the formula for calculating the future value of an ordinary annuity?

a) Future Value = Payment Amount × (1 + Interest Rate)^Number of Periods

b) Future Value = Payment Amount × (1 – Interest Rate)^Number of Periods

c) Future Value = Payment Amount × (1 + Interest Rate)/Interest Rate

d) Future Value = Payment Amount × Number of Periods

Answer: a) Future Value = Payment Amount × (1 + Interest Rate)^Number of Periods

 

Which equation represents the concept of equating the present value of an investment to its future value?

a) FV = PV × (1 + r)^n

b) PV = FV × (1 + r)^n

c) FV = PV / (1 + r)^n

d) PV = FV / (1 + r)^n

Answer: b) PV = FV × (1 + r)^n

 

Which spreadsheet function is used to calculate the future value of an investment with compound interest?

a) PV

b) FV

c) RATE

d) NPER

Answer: b) FV

 

How can you calculate the present value of an investment in Excel?

a) Using the PV function

b) Using the FV function

c) Using the RATE function

d) Using the PMT function

Answer: a) Using the PV function

 

In the context of state transitions, what does “Active” represent?

a) The initial state of a system

b) A state where no changes occur

c) A state with dynamic changes or transitions

d) A state that cannot be reached

Answer: c) A state with dynamic changes or transitions

 

In a two-state model (Active/Dead), what does the “Dead” state signify?

a) A state where nothing happens

b) The final state of a system

c) A state that can be changed to “Active”

d) A state that does not exist

Answer: b) The final state of a system

 

How do you calculate the probability of transitioning from the “Active” state to the “Dead” state in a two-state model?

a) Probability (Active to Dead) = Number of Dead / Total Population

b) Probability (Active to Dead) = Number of Dead / Number of Active

c) Probability (Active to Dead) = Number of Active / Total Population

d) Probability (Active to Dead) = Number of Dead / Number of Dead + Number of Active

Answer: b) Probability (Active to Dead) = Number of Dead / Number of Active

 

In the two-state model, if the number of active individuals is 500 and the number of dead individuals is 100, what is the probability of transitioning from “Active” to “Dead”?

a) 0.5

b) 0.2

c) 2.0

d) 5.0

Answer: b) 0.2

 

What is the life table used for?

a) Valuing cash flows

b) Calculating probabilities of state transitions

c) Predicting the future value of an investment

d) Analyzing mortality and survival patterns

Answer: d) Analyzing mortality and survival patterns

 

In a life table, what does the “lx” column represent?

a) Number of individuals at age x

b) Probability of surviving to age x

c) Number of individuals who died at age x

d) Cumulative survival probability up to age x

Answer: a) Number of individuals at age x

 

If 1000 individuals start at age 0 in a life table, and 900 survive to age 1, what is the probability of surviving from age 0 to age 1 (l1)?

a) 0.1

b) 0.9

c) 0.9%

d) 10%

Answer: b) 0.9

 

What does the Expected Present Value (EPV) represent in the context of life insurance?

a) The average value of future premiums

b) The present value of future policyholder benefits

c) The present value of future claims

d) The average value of accumulated reserves

Answer: b) The present value of future policyholder benefits

 

How does uncertainty impact the accumulated value of an investment?

a) Uncertainty has no effect on the accumulated value

b) Uncertainty increases the accumulated value

c) Uncertainty decreases the accumulated value

d) Uncertainty depends on the investment type

Answer: c) Uncertainty decreases the accumulated value

 

What is the primary purpose of conducting simulations in the context of life insurance scenarios?

a) To estimate accumulated values with certainty

b) To analyze mortality and survival patterns

c) To model potential outcomes under uncertainty

d) To calculate the Expected Present Value (EPV)

Answer: c) To model potential outcomes under uncertainty

 

In single projection simulations, what is the primary limitation of considering only one set of assumptions?

a) It makes the simulation too complex to analyze

b) It leads to multiple outcomes with high variability

c) It may not capture the full range of potential scenarios

d) It ensures accurate predictions of future events

Answer: c) It may not capture the full range of potential scenarios

 

In analyzing the simulation output, what measure is commonly used to assess the central tendency of the results?

a) Range

b) Variance

c) Standard deviation

d) Mean

Answer: d) Mean

 

In life insurance, what are reserves used for?

a) To compensate policyholders for policy lapses

b) To pay commissions to insurance agents

c) To cover future policyholder benefits and claims

d) To invest in high-return assets

Answer: c) To cover future policyholder benefits and claims

 

Why is it important to consider additional scenarios in life insurance analysis?

a) To determine the single most likely outcome

b) To understand the range of possible outcomes under different conditions

c) To reduce the complexity of the analysis

d) To eliminate uncertainty entirely

Answer: b) To understand the range of possible outcomes under different conditions

 

What is the purpose of diagnostic checking in regression analysis?

a) To prove the accuracy of the regression model

b) To confirm that all predictor variables are significant

c) To identify potential issues and violations of model assumptions

d) To determine the appropriate model specification

Answer: c) To identify potential issues and violations of model assumptions

 

How is multicollinearity assessed in regression analysis?

a) By using the variance inflation factor (VIF)

b) By checking for outliers in the data

c) By comparing the R-squared values of different models

d) By conducting residual plots

Answer: a) By using the variance inflation factor (VIF)

 

What are influential points in regression analysis?

a) Points that have a large effect on the model’s intercept

b) Points that are far from the predicted values of the model

c) Points that have high leverage on the model’s coefficients

d) Points that have a significant impact on the dependent variable

Answer: c) Points that have high leverage on the model’s coefficients

Implication of ethical values for the principles versus rule-based approaches to accounting Standards

Accounting standards plays a vital role in financial accounting and reporting in order for investors to make good decisions. Rules-based accounting is generally a list of detailed rules that must be followed when preparing financial statements. Principle based standards derive from a conceptual framework that provides for broad ‘principles’ to be adopted within standards and also requires professional and managerial judgment in relevance to particular transactions and events. The difference between rules-based and principles-based standards is not clear and is subject to a variety of interpretations. But there is a generally held outlook that the FASB’s standards are rules-based and the IASB’s standards are principles-based.

Principles-Based Accounting Standard

Principles-based accounting standards are based on a conceptual framework. Such standards require a clear hierarchy of overarching concepts, principles that reflect the overarching concepts and limited further guidance. The principles-based deliver a comprehensive way in preparing the financial statement yet has the flexibility to overcome any situations. Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 required the SEC to assess the viability of a principles-based accounting system. The SEC focused their studies on “objective-oriented” standards, which is similar to FASB’s definition of principles-based standards but it is more optimal as it offer a narrower framework that limits the scope of professional judgement but allowing more flexibility.

The main differences between accounting standards developed under a principles-based approach and existing accounting standards are:

(1) the principles would apply more broadly than under existing standards, thereby providing few, if any, exceptions to the principles.

(2) there would be less interpretive and implementation guidance (from all sources, not just the FASB) for applying the standards.

Principle based approach will help protect the long term interests of the investors and other stakeholders and will help the director of the companies to make a professional judgement in selecting and applying the most suitable accounting policies.

Six high-quality characteristics of principles-based accounting standard include; faithful presentation of economic reality, responsive to users’ needs for clarity and transparency, consistency with a clear Conceptual Framework, based on a defined scope that addresses a broad area of accounting, written in a clear and understandable language and use of appropriate judgment. The principles-based tend to have more professional judgement. The practice of professional judgment is reinforced to give a true and fair view of the organisation’s performance.

The fundamental advantage of principles-based accounting is that its broad guidelines can be practical for a variety of circumstances. Precise requirements can sometimes compel managers to manipulate the statements to fit what is compulsory.

Rules-Based Accounting Standard

Rules-based standards have more bright line threshold, more rules, have more scope exceptions and large volume of implementation guidance. Example for bright-line rules-based standards is the managing of capital lease and operating lease. The principle contrast being that a capital lease might need to show up on the asset report of the carrier whereas operating lease do not need any recording. Two distinguishable lease transactions are characterized contrastingly based upon the GAAP renting guidelines.

Rules-based increases the comparability especially when accountants and regulators have different opinions on interpretation of accounting issues.

The FASB developed rules-based standards to increase verifiability for management, auditors and regulators who seek for a clear view of accounting issue. This is related to the reduction in litigation as guidance to protect them from any lawsuits or criticism for aggressive reporting. If organisation fails to conform to these rules, it has to face legal consequences due to the fact that investors entrust the organisation to meet the regulatory requirements and make their decisions based on the interpretation of financial data.

Regulators often prefer rules to avoid unpredictable of later enforcement. Rules reduce discretion of preparer making their judgement less likely to be motivated by the yearning of personal benefits. Moreover, some managers prefer rules-based standards as business arrangement to prepare financial statement. To achieve desirable financial result, they get to gain opportunities by lobbying for treatment of different type of business arrangements.

There are 10 principles of the rules-based GAAP accounting system:

  • Regularity
  • Consistency
  • Sincerity with an accurate representation of the company’s financial situation
  • Permanence of methods
  • No expectation of compensation
  • Prudence with no semblance of speculation
  • Continuity
  • Dividing entries across appropriate periods of time
  • Full disclosure in all financial reporting
  • Good faith and honesty in all transactions

Principles-Based Accounting vs. Rules-Based Accounting

In accounting, a principles-based on approach is the most popular accounting method globally because it is usually better to adjust accounting principles to a company’s transactions, rather than adjusting a company’s operations to accounting rules. The international financial reporting standards (IFRS) system the most common international accounting standard is a principles-based approach, which states that a company’s financial statements must be understandable, readable, comparable and relevant to current financial transactions.

By contrast, rules-based accounting involves a list of detailed rules that companies and their accountants must follow when preparing financial statements. The major example of rule-based accounting is the Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP), which is a system broadly used in the U.S. Rules-based accounting involves as the name implies that users follow a list of strict and specific rules that accountants must apply when creating financial statements and other financial documents.

The fundamental advantage of principles-based accounting is that its broad guidelines can be practical for a variety of circumstances. Precise requirements can sometimes compel managers to manipulate the statements to fit what is compulsory.

On the other hand, when there are strict rules that need to be followed, like those in the U.S. GAAP system, the possibility of lawsuits is diminished. Having a set of rules can increase accuracy and reduce the ambiguity that can trigger aggressive reporting decisions by management.

Compliance to GAAP helps to ensure transparency in the financial reporting process by standardizing the various methods, terminology, definitions, and financial ratios. For example, GAAP allows investors to compare the financial statements of two companies by having standardized reporting methods. Companies must formulate their balance sheet, income statement, and cash flow statement in the same manner, so that they can be more easily evaluated.

If companies were able to report their financial numbers in any manner they chose, investors would be open to risk. Without a rules-based accounting system, companies could report only the numbers that made them appear financially successful while avoiding reporting any negative news or losses.

KMBOM05 Management of Manufacturing System mcq Set 1

1.What type of process would a Cement plant be most likely to use?

  • Continuous flow
  • Project c
  • Job shop
  • Flow shop

 

  1. Process selection is primarily considered during:

A) Planning

B) Organizing

C) Leading

D) Controlling

 

  1. What type of process would a fertilizer plant be most likely to use
  • Continuous
  • Project
  • Job
  • Flow shop

 

  1. The type of operation being carried out by an organization depends upon:

A) Degree of standardization

B) Volume of output

C) Demand

D) Both (a) and (b)

 

  1. Repetitive processing results in output that is:

A) Highly standardized

B) Highly customized

C) Partially customized

D) None of the given options

 

  1. Construction of fertilizer plant is
  • Continuous
  • Project
  • Job
  • Flow shop

 

  1. The inputs to a transformation process include all of the following except
  • Material
  • People
  • Information
  • Transportation

 

  1. Job shop and batch processing are differentiated on the basis of:

A) Job requirements

B) Degree of standardization

C) Volume of output

D) Both (b) and (c)

 

  1. Automation is preferred because it:

A) Offers lesser dependence on workers

B) Results in reduction in variable cost

C) Offers easy handling of repetitive work

D) All of the given options

 

  1. Product layout is preferably used for:

A) Repetitive processing

B) Intermittent processing

C) Both (a) and (b)

D) Neither (a) nor (b)

 

  1. What are the two basic types of production systems?
  • Automated and manual
  • Intermittent and non-intermittent process
  • Normal and continuous process
  • Continuous process and batch

 

  1. Process layout is used for:

A) Repetitive processing

B) Intermittent processing

C) Both (a) and (b)

D) Neither (a) nor (b)

 

  1. The most significant advantage of U-shaped layout is:

A) Cost minimization

B) Easy handling of process

C) Increased flexibility in work

D) All of the given options

 

  1. The goal of motion study is to achieve:

A) Cost minimization

B) Maximum efficiency

C) Profitability

D) All of the given options

 

  1. Location decisions are viewed primarily as part of:

A) Marketing strategy

B) Growth factors

C) Financial aspect

D) Both (a) and (b)

 

  1. Regional factors for location planning include all of the following except:

A) Raw materials

B) Markets

C) Labor considerations

D) Attitudes

 

  1. Transportation method is a __________ approach.

A) Quantitative

B) Qualitative

C) Scientific

D) All of the given options

 

  1. Poor quality adversely affects:

A) Costs

B) Productivity

C) Profitability

D) All of the given options

 

  1. A product performing consistently refers to which of the following dimensions of quality:

A) Safety

B) Conformance

C) Durability

D) Reliability

 

  1. What type of process would a paper mill be most likely to use?
  • Continuous flow
  • Project
  • Job shop
  • Flow shop

 

  1. Which of the following is not a type of operations?

A) goods production

B) storage/transportation

C) entertainment

D) all the above involve operations

 

  1. Technology choices seldom affect:

A) Costs

B) Productivity

C) Union activity.

D) quality

 

  1. Measurements taken at various points in the transformation process for control purposes are called:

A) plans

B) directions

C) controls

D) feedback

 

  1. Which of the following would not be an operations activity in a fast-food restaurant?
  • Advertising new salad dishes
  • Purchasing tomatoes
  • Planning the layout of the serving areas
  • Cooking panir palak and dal makhani

 

  1. Budgeting, analysis of investment proposals, and provision of funds are activities associated with the _______ function.

A) operation

B) marketing

C) purchasing

D) finance

 

  1. Which one of the following would not generally be classified under the heading of transformation?

A) assembling

B) teaching

C) staffing

D) farming

 

  1. Manufacturing work sent to other countries is called:

A) downsized

B) Outsourced

C) internationalization

D) vertical integration

 

  1. What name is often given to processes which involve the manufacture of a unique item from beginning to end?
  • Jobbing processes
  • Continuous processes.
  • Lean production processes.
  • Batch processes.

 

  1. Product design and process selection are examples of _______ decisions.

A) financial

B) tactical

C) System design

D) system operation

 

  1. The responsibilities of the operations manager are:

A) planning, organizing, staffing, procuring, and reviewing

B) planning, organizing, staffing, directing, and controlling

C) forecasting, designing, planning, organizing, and controlling

D) forecasting, designing, operating, procuring, and reviewing

 

  1. Which of these layouts is most suitable for processing sugar from sugar beets or sugar cane?
  • Process-oriented layout
  • Fixed-position layout
  • Focused factory
  • Product-oriented layout

 

  1. Which of the following is not true about systems approach?

A) A systems viewpoint is usually beneficial in decision making.

B) A systems approach emphasizes interrelationships among subsystems.

C) A systems approach concentrates on efficiency within subsystems.

D) A systems approach is essential whenever something is being redesigned or improved.

 

  1. What is credited with gains in industrial productivity, increased standards of living and affordable products?
  • personal computers
  • The internet
  • Mass transportation
  • Assembly lines

 

  1. Which of the following is an example of a Service Business?
  • Law firm
  • Hospital
  • Bank
  • Retail store
  • All of the above

 

  1. Production systems with customized outputs typically have relatively:

A) high volumes of output

B) low unit costs

C) high amount of specialized equipment

D) skilled workers

 

  1. According to the Chase and Dasu (2001) study which of the following are behavioral concepts that should be applied to enhance customer perceptions of a service encounter?
  • Flow of the service experience
  • Flow of time
  • Judging encounter performance
  • All of the above
  • None of the above

 

  1. Which is not a significant difference between manufacturing and service operations?

A) cost per unit

B) uniformity of output

C) labor content of jobs

D) Measurement of productivity.

 

  1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of service operations?

A) intangible output

B) high customer contact

C) high labor content

D) easy measurement of productivity

E) low uniformity of output

 

  1. Which of the following is a recent trend in business?

A) pollution control

B) total quality management

C) supply chain management

D) competition from foreign manufacturers

E) technological change

 

  1. Farming is an example of:

A) an obsolete activity

B) a virtual organization

C) non-manufactured goods

D) a growth industry

E) customized manufacturing

 

  1. Service strategy development begins by selecting which of the following as an operating focus or performance priority?
  • Price
  • Quality
  • Variety
  • Treatment
  • All of the above

 

  1. Dealing with the fact that certain aspects of any management situation are more important than others is called:

A) analysis of tradeoffs

B) sensitivity analysis

C) Recognition of priorities

D) analysis of variance

E) decision table analysis

 

  1. The fact that a few improvements in a few key areas of operations will have more impact than many improvements in many other areas is consistent with the:

A) Irwin phenomenon

B) Pareto phenomenon

C) Stevenson phenomenon

D) Tellier phenomenon

E) Adam Smith phenomenon

 

  1. Which of the following “best practices emphasized by service executives” had the highest mean emphasize rating?
  • Leadership
  • Accessibility
  • Quality values
  • Customer orientation
  • Listening to the customer

 

  1. The process of comparing outputs to previously established standards to determine if corrective action is needed is called:

A) planning

B) directing

C) controlling

D) budgeting

E) disciplining

 

  1. Which of the following does not relate to system design?

A) altering the system capacity

B) location of facilities

C) inventory management

D) selection and acquisition of equipment

E) physical arrangement of departments

 

  1. Based on the Service-System Design Matrix, which of the following has a lower level of “production efficiency”?
  • Face-to-face loose specs
  • Phone contact
  • Internet and on-site technology
  • Face-to-face tight specs
  • Mail contact

 

  1. Taking a systems viewpoint with regard to operations in today’s environment increasingly leads decision-makers to consider ______________ in response to the ___________.

A) flexibility; pressure to be more efficient

B) off shoring; need to promote domestic production

C) sustainability; threat of global warming

D) technology; impact of random variation

E) forecasting; stabilization of demand

 

  1. Which of the following is not a benefit of using models in decision-making?

A) They provide a standardized format for analyzing a problem.

B) They serve as a consistent tool for evaluation.

C) They are easy to use and less expensive than dealing with the actual situation.

D) All of the above are benefits.

E) None of the above is a benefit.

 

  1. Modern firms increasingly rely on other firms to supply goods and services instead of doing these tasks themselves. This increased level of _____________ is leading to increased emphasis on ____________ management.

A) outsourcing; supply chain

B) off shoring; lean

C) downsizing; total quality

D) optimizing; inventory

E) internationalization; intercultural

 

  1. Operations and sales are the two-________ functions in businesses.

A) strategic

B) tactical

C) support

D) line

 

  1. Marketing depends on operations for information regarding ___________.

A) productivity

B) lead time

C) cash flow

D) budgeting

E) corporate intelligence

 

  1. Two widely used metrics of variation are the __________ and the _________.

A) mean; standard deviation

B) productivity ratio; correlation

C) standardized mean; assignable deviation

D) randomized mean; standardized deviation

E) normal distribution; random variation

 

  1. Which one is not generally considered an advantage of using models for decision-making?

A) Providing a systematic approach to problem solving.

B) Emphasizing quantitative information

C) Providing an exact representation of reality.

D) Enabling managers to answer “what if” questions

E) Requiring users to be specific about objectives.

 

  1. Which came last in the development of manufacturing techniques?

A) Lean production.

B) Division of labor.

C) Mass production.

D) Interchangeable parts.

 

  1. The operating characteristic (OC) curve shows the probability of

A) rejection for every possible true percentage of defectives

B) acceptance for every possible true percentage of defectives

C) making type I errors for various percentages of defectives

D) none of the above

 

  1. If an artificial variable remains in the solution with a positive value after the stopping criterion has been reached, the problem

A) is infeasible

B) is optimal

C) needs a new basis

D) has more than one solution

 

  1. What are the two sources of costs in queuing analysis?

A) Arrivals and departures

B) Arrivals and idleness

C) Waiting customers and capacity

D) Equipment breakdowns and departures

 

  1. Which of the following statements about variation is FALSE?

A) Variation prevents a production process from being as efficient as it can be.

B) Some variation can be prevented.

C) Variation can be either assignable or random.

D) Any variation makes a production process less productive.

E) Random variation generally cannot be influenced by managers.

 

  1. Which of the following is essential to consider with respect to managing a process to meet demand?

A) strategy

B) demand forecasts

C) capacity

D) all of the above

 

  1. Which one of the following would not generally be considered an aspect of operations management?

A) Schedule work

B) Secure financial resources

C) Maintain quality

D) Oversee the transformation process

E) Manage inventories

 

  1. Which one of these was not mentioned in the list of recent trends in operations management?

A) Total quality management

B) Worker involvement

C) Global competition.

D) Automation.

E) Environmental issues.

 

  1. Which came last in the development of manufacturing techniques?

A) Lean production.

B) Division of labor.

C) Mass production.

D) Craft production.

E) Interchangeable parts.

 

  1. Which of the following is not a type of operations?

A) goods production

B) storage/transportation

C) entertainment

D) price reduction

 

  1. Which of the following is not true about a lean production system?

A) It puts emphasis on quality, flexibility, and time reduction.

B) It puts emphasis on reducing a company’s labor force.

C) It is involved in maintaining and improving the system with lower amounts of inventory.

D) It relies on buffers against unforeseen occurrences.

 

  1. Which one of the following is not a typical question dealt with by operations managers?

A) How much capacity will be needed in the months ahead?

B) What is a satisfactory location for a new facility?

C) Which products/services should be offered?

D) All are typical of operations decisions.

 

  1. Which one does not use operations management?

A) A CPA firm.

B) A bank.

C) A hospital

D) They all use it.

 

  1. The transportation model method that is used to evaluate location alternatives minimizes total.

A) sources

B) destinations

C) capacity

D) shipping costs

 

70.. What is simulation?

A) A quick solution method to problem-solving

B) A formalized deterministic approach to problem-solving

C) A graphical method to problem-solving

D) A trial-and-error approach to problem-solving

 

  1. Moving from the aggregate plan to a master production schedule requires

A) rough cut capacity planning

B) sub-optimization

C) disaggregation

D) strategy formulation

 

  1. Which of the following statements is true of Lean-Six Sigma?

A) Lean principles focus on advanced statistical methods.

B) Lean principles and Six-Sigma are separate bodies of knowledge

C) Lean principles have been developed over a lengthy period.

D) Lean principles include the 5Ss framework and practices.

 

  1. When the flow of materials is variable,

A) layout by process is most suitable

B) b layout by product is most suitable

C) layout by fixed position is most suitable

D) line balancing is most suitable

 

  1. A fixed interval system

A) adds the same predetermined amount to inventory each time replenishment occurs

B) is suitable for joint replenishment items

C) is triggered at the reorder level

D) requires perpetual monitoring of inventory records

 

  1. Which of the following terms best defines the nature of Total Quality Management?

A) An art

B) A philosophy

C) A science

D) A social activity

 

  1. Which of the following terms reflects Japanese view of continuous improvement?

A) Kaizen

B) Poka-yoke

C) Six sigma

D) Control limits

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT an element of TQM?

A) Leadership

B) Perceived quality

C) Employee empowerment

D) Customer focus

 

  1. Which of the following is an example of appraisal cost?

A) Rework costs

B) Returned goods

C) Testing labs

D) Quality improvement programs

 

  1. Warranty cost is an example of which of the following?

A) Internal failure cost

B) External failure cost

C) Prevention cost

D) Appraisal cost

 

  1. Refer to the stage of PDCA (Plan, Do, Check, Act) cycle that involves evaluating the improvement plan.

A) Plan

B) Do

C) Check

D) Act

 

  1. Which of the following refers to a continuous measurement of an organization’s products and processes against a company recognized as a leader in that industry?

A) Benchmarking

B) Gap analysis

C) Statistical process control

D) Continuous improvement

 

  1. Which of the following is the focus of statistical process control?

A) Determining the efficiency of an operations system

B) Measuring the amount of re-work required to rectify faulty goods

C) Identifying the security needs of an operations system

D) Measuring and controlling process variations

 

  1. Which of the following is a measure of how closely a product or service meets the specifications?

A) Quality of Conformance

B) Continuous improvement

C) Competitive benchmarking

D) Statistical process control

 

  1. Which of the following is not a type of operations?

A) goods production

B) storage/transportation

C) entertainment

D) all the above involve operations

 

  1. Technology choices seldom affect:

A) Costs

B) Productivity

C) Union activity.

D) Quality

 

  1. Measurements taken at various points in the transformation process for control purposes are called:

A) Plans

B) Directions

C) Controls

D) Feedback.

 

  1. Budgeting, analysis of investment proposals, and provision of funds are activities associated with the _______ function.

A) Operation

B) Marketing

C) Purchasing

D) finance

 

  1. Which one of the following would not generally be classified under the heading of transformation?

A) Assembling

B) Teaching

C) staffing

D) Farming

E) consulting

 

  1. Manufacturing work sent to other countries is called:

A) Downsized

B) Outsourced

C) Internationalization

D) vertical integration

E) entrepreneurial ship

 

  1. Product design and process selection are examples of _______ decisions.

A) Financial

B) Tactical

C) System design

D) system operation

E) Forecasting

Sourcing Management Objectives Set 2

Q1. Which of the following is a definition of the term ‘supply chain’?

  1. The way in which information passes from user to procurement supplier
  2. The range of suppliers used by a procurement organisation
  3. The network of organisations and activities involved with the flow and transformation of goods
  4. The types, frequency and organisation of deliveries to the end user

 

Q2. A primary aim of a procurement professional must be to achieve ………

  1. Value for money
  2. Stock control
  3. Inventory management
  4. Outsourcing

 

Q3. Which of the following is a key part of a decision to outsource?

  1. Make or buy
  2. Win or lose
  3. Buy or sell
  4. Pass or fail

 

Q4. In order to ensure value for money organisations must strive for……..…

  1. Timely delivery
  2. Efficient and effective administration
  3. Short supply chains
  4. Inventory management

 

Q5. Exploiting labour is an example of …

  1. Poor ethical practice
  2. sound business practice
  3. good ethical practice
  4. progressive management

 

Q6. Customers are …

  1. an example of an external stakeholder in the supply chain
  2. an example of an internal stakeholder in the supply chain
  3. not considered to be part of the supply chain
  4. responsible for the management of the supply chain

 

Q7. Costs that are directly attributable to the end product or service are known as what?

  1. Capital costs
  2. Operational costs
  3. Direct costs
  4. Indirect costs

 

Q8. Kaif works for a company that buys in diamonds and creates jewellery. In which sector is Kaif employed?

  1. Primary
  2. Tertiary
  3. Secondary
  4. Quaternary

 

Q9. The end user of beneficiary of a product or service is best described as what?

  1. A customer
  2. A consumer
  3. A supplier
  4. A buyer

 

Q10. Dhoni has a meeting with a business that supplies raw materials to a supplier from which dhoni buys finished products. Dhoni knows that working with suppliers throughout the supply chain can aid transparency. What is the name for the levels of suppliers in a supply chain?

  1. Tiers
  2. Stages
  3. Steps
  4. Traders

 

Q11. What is the terminology used whereby all associated costs of a procurement are taken into consideration?

  1. Total cost of buying
  2. Total cost of procurement
  3. Total cost of purchasing
  4. Total cost of ownership

 

Q12. Which type of function is best suited to being outsourced?

  1. High operational performance, high strategic performance
  2. High operational performance, low strategic performance
  3. Low operational performance, low strategic performance
  4. Low operational performance, high strategic performance

 

Q13. How many stages are there within the procurement cycle?

  1. 10
  2. 11
  3. 12
  4. 13

 

Q14. For many years Lynn has entrusted a strategic supplier to stitch her saddles that she then sells online across the world. Due to financial constraints Lynn has taken the decision to do the needlework (stitching) herself from next month. What is the name of the process whereby Lynn will do something herself that used to be contracted to a supplier?

  1. Outsourcing
  2. Off shoring
  3. Insourcing
  4. In shoring

 

Q15. What is the main purpose of issuing a pre-qualification questionnaire in procurement?

  1. To obtain the best price
  2. To engage with the most suitable suppliers
  3. To achieve the lowest cost
  4. To engage with high volume producing suppliers

Sourcing Management Objectives Set 1

Q1. Which of the following is the opposite of just in time?

  • Stock control
  • TQM
  • Just in case stock management
  • Kaizen

 

Q2. A drawback to a business of using just in time stock control is:

  • High insurance costs
  • Stock could quickly become out of date or obsolete
  • Storage costs will be high
  • Delays in deliveries could result in idle resources

 

Q3. Which of the following businesses would be best suited to a just in time stock control system?

  • Car manufacturer
  • Nationwide footwear retailer
  • Wholesaler of building supplies
  • School uniform retailer

 

Q4. Which of the following would a new fair trade café consider as the most important factor when considering its choice of suppliers?

  • Price
  • Reliability
  • Flexibility
  • Ethical values

 

Q5. The business term that involves choosing a supplier, agreeing what to buy at a certain price and by when is called:

  • Logistics
  • Supply chain management
  • Stock control
  • Procurement

Q6. Which of the following is a benefit to a supplier of consistently delivering products on time?

  • Repeat orders
  • Lower prices
  • Lower storage costs
  • Minimal buffer stock held

 

Q7. Supply chain management is increasingly difficult and complex due to:

  • The increased pace of globalization
  • The UK’s ageing population
  • Economies of scale
  • Improvements in communication systems

 

Q8. Which of the following job roles would be found within the logistics department for a large supermarket chain?

  • Customer services manager
  • Warehouse manager
  • Retail manager
  • Human resources manager

 

Q9. Which area of business will Amazon particularly focus upon to ensure customer deliveries arrive on time?

  • Finance
  • Sales
  • Logistics
  • Marketing

 

Q10. The time difference between a business ordering and receiving stock is called the:

  • Reorder quantity
  • Lead time
  • Buffer stock
  • Reorder level

 

Q11. Which of the following is a main reason why a supplier may be reluctant to supply a new business with stock?

  • The quality of the supplies may not meet customer expectations
  • The new business may request large volumes of stock
  • The new business may demand reasonable prices
  • High failure rate of new businesses

 

Q12. Which of the following is a benefit to a business of having an efficient procurement department?

  • Improved levels of customer service
  • Increased levels of staff motivation
  • Higher sales revenue
  • Lower unit costs

 

Q13. Which of the following is the first stage in a supply chain for a chocolate bar?

  • The supplier of cocoa beans
  • The manufacturer of the chocolate bar
  • Transportation between each stage of the supply chain
  • The retailer

 

Q14. Which of the following is a benefit to a business of reducing its production times?

  • It will hold less stock
  • It sales will increase
  • Its staff will be more motivated
  • It could create a competitive advantage

 

Q15. A business getting good value when buying products means that it will:

  • Always get the cheapest price
  • Always get the highest quality
  • Get the right balance between price and quality
  • Charge its customers the lowest price possible

 

Question 16. The terms purchasing and procurement should not be seen as synonymous. As such, which of the following statements do you think has greatest validity?

  • Procurement has a broader meaning than purchasing
  • Purchasing has a broader meaning than procurement
  • Procurement is broadly equivalent to purchasing
  • None of the above

Question 17. The electronic integration and management of all procurement activities including purchase request, authorization, ordering, delivery and payment between a purchaser and supplier is known as:

  • E-procurement system
  • E-procurement
  • E-procurement process
  • All of the above

 

Question 18. The range of potential options for improving purchasing processes are indicated by benefits described by the Chartered Institute of Purchasing and Supply such as:

  • Evaluation of end-to-end trading cycles
  • Content management
  • Multimedia
  • All of the above
  • None of the above

 

Question 19. Generally, which sequence is most typical of the procurement process?

  • Originator to buyer to approver to supplier
  • Originator to approver to buyer to supplier
  • Supplier to originator to approver to buyer
  • Approver to originator to buyer to supplier
  • None of the above

 

Question 20. E-procurement aims to improve performance of what is known as the ‘five rights of purchasing’. One aim of e-procurement is increasing savings by sourcing items:

  • Of the right quality
  • At the right price
  • Of the right quantity
  • From the right source

 

Question 21. Another aim of e-procurement is increased choice of supplier leading to sourcing items:

  • Of the right quantity
  • At the right price
  • From the right source
  • Delivered at the right time

           

Question 22. A recent simple classification of different types or applications of e-procurement was produced by Smart. Which of the following is NOT one of these?

  • E-tendering
  • E-informing
  • E-sourcing
  • E-transparency

           

Question 23. What is the term used to describe where supply chain partners manage the replenishment of parts or items for sale? They do this through the sharing of information on variations in demand and stock levels for goods used for manufacture or sale.

  • Efficient customer response
  • Vendor-managed inventory
  • E-procurement drivers
  • E-business value and stock level grid

           

Question 24. There are barriers and risks involved in adopting e-procurement. Which of the following is NOT regarded as a risk or barrier?

  • Negotiated procurement benefits may be shared with other exchange users who may be competitors
  • Possible positive perception from suppliers
  • Creation and cost of catalogues
  • Competition issues

           

Question 25. In future, some suggest that the task of searching for suppliers and products may be taken over by a programme which automatically gathers information from the Internet:

  • Software intelligent agents
  • Metamediaries
  • Electronic B2B marketplaces
  • Spider search engines

           

Question 26. Of the following, which is an e-procurement benefit related to budgetary control?

  • Reduced purchase cycle
  • Rules to limit spending and improved reporting facilities
  • Enabling them to concentrate on strategic purchasing issues
  • Correcting errors is traditionally a major part of a buyer’s workload

           

Question 27. Which of the following describes the stock control system element of an e-procurement system?

  • Re-ordering is automated when the number in stock falls below re-order thresholds
  • Staff in the buying department to enter an order which can then be used by accounting staff to make payment when the invoice arrives
  • Integrates the entry of the order by the originator, approval by manager and placement by buyer
  • Possible to integrate all e-procurement functionality and may also include integration with suppliers’ systems

           

Question 28. Production related procurement refers to the purchasing of:

  • Furniture
  • Information systems
  • Office supplies
  • Raw materials

                       

Question 29. Negotiated contracts with regular suppliers typically in long-term relationships is an example of:

  • MRO sourcing
  • Systematic sourcing
  • E-procurement
  • Spot sourcing

 

Question 30. Fulfillment of an immediate need, typically of a commoditised item for which it is less important to know the credibility of the supplier is an example of:

  • MRO sourcing
  • Spot sourcing
  • E-procurement
  • Systematic sourcing

           

Question 31. For B2B transactions involved with e-procurement, the merchant site should facilitate:

  • Modified rebuys
  • Partially complete orders
  • Straight rebuys
  • Initial purchases
  • All of the above

Universal Human values and Professional Ethics Objectives Set 2

Unit 4: Harmony in Nature and Existence

Bracket is the Answer

  1. The participation of the human being in ensuring the role of physical facility in nurture, protection and providing means for the body is called its (Utility value) ___________.

  1. The participation of the human being in ensuring the role of physical facility to help and preserve its utility is called its (Artistic value)____________.

  1. Between every two units there is (Space)________.

  1. When nature is submerged in space we call it (Existence)___________.

  1. Nature is (Limited)_________ and while space is (unlimited)_______ in size.

  1. When something is active or has activity, we call it a (Unit)________.

  1. Space is constant or (Equilibrium)_________ energy.

  1. There are two kinds of realities in existence: (Space)_______ and (units)______.

  1. Material units have the activities of Recognizing)____ and fulfilling ______

  1. Material units are (Temporary)_________ in nature.

  1. Co-existence is when (Nature)_________ is submerged in (space)________.

  1. The first order of nature is (Material order)____________.

  1. The second order of nature is (Plant order)________

  1. The third order of nature is (Animal order)____________.

  1. The fourth order of nature is (Human order)____________.

  1. Parsparta means (Interconnectedness)___________.

  1. Paraspar purakta means (Mutually fulfilling)__________.

  1. Human beings are dependent on the (Material order)________ for soil, minerals and metals.

  1. The natural characteristic of material order (Composition/ decomposition)_________.

  1. The basic activities of plant order are (Recognizing and fulfillment)__________.

  1. Conformance of material order is named as (Constitution conformance)________.

  1. Conformance of plant/ bio order is called (Seed conformance)__________.

  1. Conformance of animal order is (Breed conformance)_____________.

  1. Conformance of human order is (Right value or sanskara conformance)_______.

  1. The cell belongs to (Pranic order)_________ order.

  1. In animals only the activity of (Selection/taste)_________ is predominant.

  1. The activities in human body are (Composition/decomposition)______ and (respiration)______.

  1. (Existence)______ and (growth)________ together are the innateness of the pranic order.

  1. The value or participation of different orders in existence is also referred to

as their (Natural characteristics)_______.

  1. The fundamental characteristic of material order is (Composition/decomposition)_________.

  1. The body of animals and humans belongs to the (Pranic)_______ order.

  1. The natural characteristics/svabhava of a human being are

(Perseverance)_______, (bravery)_______ and (genriosity)_______.

  1. The continuity of a plant species is maintained in nature by (Seed conformance)_______ method.

  1. Human being has (Sanskar)__________ conformance.

  1. The systems in nature are (Cyclic)______ and (mutually fulfilling)________.

  1. (Nature) __________ is equivalent to the natural world, physical world or material world.

  1. There is mutual __________ among the four orders of nature.

  1. The four orders of nature are material order, plant order, _____ order and human

order.

 

Unit 5: Professional Ethics

  1. The definitiveness of human conduct in terms of values, policies and character is termed as (Ethics)______.

  1. Developing ethical competence in the profession is the only effective way to ensure (Professional ethics)____________.

  1. The term ethics has been taken from the Greek word (ethos) _______ which means character.

  1. (Ethics) _________ are considered the moral standar ds by which people judge behaviour.

  1. (Professional ethics)________ is the implication of(right understanding)_______ in (profession)________.

  1. Comprehensive human goal consists of (samadhan) ________, (samridhi)

________, (abhay) ________, and (seh-astitiva) _________.

  1. Holistic production systems are eco-friendly and (people – friendly) _________.

True and False

1. Harmony of „I‟ with „body‟ is not possible as they have different needs.

False

2 The body is an instrument of „I‟.

True

3 The „I‟ is the doer, sear and enjoyer.

True

4. Sanyam leads to swasthya and swasthya leads to sukh.

True

5. Value education cannot be rational and has to be based on assumptions.

False

6. The self is an instrument of the body.

False

7 Prosperity in the family is one of the comprehensive human goals.

True

8 Nature has self – regulation.

True

9 Human conduct is definite.

True

  1. The course inputs for human values need not be verifiable.

False

11 The self is the doer, not the body.

True

12 Understanding human relationships leads to undivided society.

True

13 There is an inherent struggle and chaos in nature.

False

14 Competence in professional ethics implies the ability to be fulfilling with human being as well as rest of the nature in profession.

True

15 We may differ on many things, but what we respect is free enquiry open mindness, and their pursuit of ideas for their own sake.

True

16 There is an inherent inter connectedness, self-regulation and harmony at all levels of existence and this needs to be discovered by each individual. The whole existence is coexistence. Humans are only a constituent part.

True

17 Humans are scarcely being governed by their preconditioning and sensory experiences and one is generally very eager to relook at them.

True

18 We generally evaluate ourselves on the basis of our intentions and others on the basis of their competence.

True

19 Sanyam is the lack of responsibility in „I‟ towards the body for its nurture, protection and right utilization.

False

20 Living of human being on the basis of physical facilities is called human consciousness.

False

21 To be in harmony is happiness.

True

22 Under evaluation is naturally acceptable in relationship.

False

23 Body is a material unit while the self is a conscious unit.

True

24 Working for unlimited wealth lead to a happy life.

False

25 A human being is nothing but a material body.

False

  1. Existence is co-existence.

True

27 Existence in the family is a barrier to harmony in the society.

False

28 Every human being wants to live with definite conduct.

True

  1. Value education can be ensured through self-exploration in the human being.

True

25 Imagination includes Desire, Thought and Expectation.

True

26 Respect is the need of the body.

False

27 Fearlessness is one of the comprehensive human goals.

True

28 The plant order is a co-existence of the self and body too.

False

29 Corruption is an unethical practice.

True

30 Prosperity and wealth are equivalent.

False

31 Right understanding forms the basis of definitiveness of human conduct.

True

32 The process of self evolution is self exploration.

True

33 Imaging is the activity of body.

False

34 „Knowing‟ in „Self‟ means having the „Right understanding‟

True

  1. Affection is the foundational value in relationship.

False

41 Ensuring right understanding and feelings in the other is called

Guidance.

True

42 The feeling of relatedness to all human beings is called Love.

False

43 Where there is harmony among the parts of the body, it is known as sanyam.

False

44 Activities of body are continuous.

False

45 Sukh is ensured by appropriate physico-chemical things.

False

46 The feeling of acceptance of excellence in the other is called reverence.

True

47 Akhand samaj is the feeling of being related to every human being.

True

48 Justice in family means recognizing and working on nine values of relationship.

True

  1. Education – right living leads to fearlessness
    False

50 Society is the second level of living.

False

51 Selecting and desiring are the activities of self.

True

52 Clothing, nourishment are the needs of body.

True

53 „Bhokta‟ means „doer‟

False

54 Conformance of plant/ bio order is called “seed conformance”.

True

Universal Human values and Professional Ethics Objectives Set 1

Multiple choice questions

  1. The purpose of value education is to:
  • Foster universal core values.
  • Make the syllabus easy.
  • Develop values in individuals.
  • Both (a) and (c)

ANS: d

 

  1. Self exploration uses two mechanisms natural acceptance and:
  • Experiential validation
  • Reason
  • Logical thinking
  • Theoretical concepts.

ANS: a

 

  1. Harmony should be maintained in:
  • Between body and life.
  • Between self and society
  • Between life and environment
  • All the above.

ANS d

 

  1. Sah-astitva means:
  • Co-existence
  • Co-operation
  • Cooption
  • Corporate identity

ANS: a

 

  1. A harmonious world is created by values at 4 levels.. These are:
  • Home, family, society, country.
  • Individual, family, society, universe.
  • School, home, office, temple
  • None of the above

ANS: b

 

  1. Many human values seem good or right due to:
  • Positive feelings
  • Internal happiness
  • Natural acceptance
  • All the above

ANS: d

 

  1. Competence in professional ethics refers to:
  • Ability to utilize power effectively
  • Ability to augment the universal human order.
  • Ability to make profit
  • Both b and c.

ANS: d

 

  1. An individual people aspiring for the universal human order will be:
  • More responsible socially and ecologically
  • More rich.
  • More powerful
  • More well-travelled

ANS: a

 

  1. A country which has transited to the universal human order is likely to have:
  • More global trade
  • Mutually enriching institutions and organizations.
  • More say in the UNO
  • None of the above

ANS: a

 

  1. As individual people aspiring for the universal human order will be:
  • More rich
  • More responsible socially and ecologically.
  • More powerful
  • More well-travelled

ANS: b

 

  1. Harmony should be maintained in:
  • Between body and life
  • Between self and society
  • Between life and environment
  • All the above.

ANS: d

 

  1. Values important for relationship are many they may include:
  • Aggression
  • Competition
  • Integrity and character
  • Arrogance

ANS: c

 

Bracket is in the Answer

  1. (Value)________ is our participation at different levels in the larger order.

 

  1. When we participate in the larger order, this participation at different levels is our (Value)________

 

  1. The participation of the human being is seen in two forms: (Behaviour)_______ and (work)______.

 

  1. (Values)______ are the outcome of (Realization)________ and (understanding)

______, which are always definite.

 

  1. By exploring our svatva and living accordingly, we become Svatantra)________.

 

  1. Giving weight age to physical facilities, to the maximization of sensory pleasures, to accumulation of wealth is called (Animal consciousness)___________.

 

  1. (Right understanding)________ helps the human being to transform from

(Animal consciousness)________ to (human consciousness)____

 

  1. There can only be a (Qualitative)__________ change in conscious units.

 

  1. (Society)________ is the third level of living

 

  1. (Individual)________ is the first level of living.

 

  1. (Family)________ is the second level of living.

 

  1. (Nature)________ is the fourth level of living.

 

  1. Self exploration uses two mechanisms– (natural acceptance)_______and (experiential validation)_______.

 

  1. Mechanisms of self exploration are (natural acceptance) ________ and (experiential validation) _______

 

  1. Samridhi means (prosperity) _______________

 

  1. Process of value education has to be that of (self investigation) ________ and (self exploration) ____

 

  1. Prosperity means (health) _________, (wealth) ________ and (wisdom) ______

 

  1. Developed nations are the live example of (prosperity) _______________

 

  1. Happiness, pleasure or joy is the (emotional) _______________ state of being happy.

 

  1. Without truth, caring, concern or love and justice,(conflicts) ________ arise and peace is endangered.

 

  1. Self introspection plays important role to create (harmony) ________ within oneself

 

  1. Self study helps us to know our (weaknesses) ________

 

  1. (Prosperity) ______ is the state to flourishing, thriving, success or good fortune.

 

  1. (Natural acceptance) ________ of (values) ________ will develop (self respect)

______.

 

  1. Universal, rational and verifiable are (guidelines)_______ of (value education)

________

 

  1. The four levels of human living are (self) ______, (family) _____, (society)

_______ and (nature) ____

 

  1. To be in a state of (liking) __________ is (happiness) _________.

 

  1. To be in a state of (disliking) __________ is (unhappiness) _________.

 

  1. The (value) ____ of entity is its participation in larger order.

 

  1. (Self exploration) _____ is a process of (self-evolution) ______ through (self-investigation)______.

 

  1. (Program) ______ and (desire) ________ are the content of (self exploration).

 

  1. (Value education) _________ helps us to correctly identify our (aspirations)

_________.

 

  1. (Technology) ________ is only a means to achieve what is considered valuable for a human being in an effective and efficient manner.

 

  1. Value education leads a human being to (harmony) _________.

 

  1. The content of Value education is expected to include all (dimensions)________ and (levels)_____ of a human being.

 

  1. The process to understand human (value) _________ is self exploration.

 

  1. Prosperity means (health) _________, (wealth) ________ and (wisdom)

 

  1. Developed nations are the live example of (prosperity) _______________

 

  1. Happiness, pleasure or joy is the (emotional) _______________ state of being happy.

 

  1. 20.Without truth, caring, concern or love and justice,(conflicts) ________ arise and peace is endangered

 

  1. Self introspection plays important role to create (harmony) ________ within oneself

 

  1. Self study helps us to know our (weaknesses) ________ and how to remove

 

  1. (Prosperity) ______ is the state to flourishing, thriving, success or good fortune.

 

  1. (Natural acceptance) ________ of (values) ________ will develop (self respect)

______.

 

  1. Universal, rational and verifiable are (guidelines)_______ of (value education)

________

 

  1. The four levels of human living are (self) ______,

 

  1. (family) _____, (society) _______ and (nature) _______.

 

  1. To be in a state of (liking) __________ is (happiness) _________.

 

  1. To be in a state of (disliking) __________ is (unhappiness) _________.

 

  1. The (value) ____ of entity is its participation in larger order.

 

  1. (Self exploration)_____ is a process of (self evolution)______ through (self

investigation)______.

 

  1. (Program) ______ and (desire) ________ are the content of (self exploration).

 

  1. (Value education) _________ helps us to correctly indentify our (aspirations)

_________.

 

  1. (Technology) ________ is only a means to achieve what is considered valuable for a human being in an effective and efficient manner.

 

  1. Value education leads a human being to (harmony) _________.

 

  1. The content of Value education is expected to include all (dimensions)________ and (levels)_____ of a human being.

 

Unit 2: Harmony in Self

 

  1. Knowing means having the (Right understanding)________.

 

  1. Each human being is co-existence of the (Self (I))______ and the body)_______.

 

  1. The (body)__________ does not assume things.

 

  1. (Sanyam)_______ is the feeling of responsibility for nurturing, protecting and right utilizing the body.

 

  1. Where there is harmony among the parts of the body,it is known as

(Swasthya)________.

 

  1. (Sanyama)________ is the basis of (Swasthya)_______

 

  1. (Sanyam)_________ is vital for the (Swathya)_______

 

  1. With the help of the (Body)_______, self explores and interact with rest of the nature.

 

  1. The system of the body works in a (Self organized) __________ way.

 

  1. Human body is an instrument to facilitate (Right understanding) ______.

 

  1. The self is (Conscious)______ in nature while body is (Physico-chemical)

_______ in nature.

 

  1. The basic capacity of self is known as (Power)___________.

 

  1. The power/capacity for selecting/tasting is (Expectation)___________.

 

  1. (Expectation)________ is the capacity of (Selecting/tasting)_________.

 

  1. The self and body interacts with each other via the activity of (Selecting/tasting)_________.

 

  1. The flow of activity of (Selecting/tasting)___________ can leads to (thoughts)

________.

 

  1. The capacity of (thoughts)__________ could lead to (desires) _________.

 

  1. The activity of desires, thoughts and expecting, together is called as (imagination)

 

  1. ________.

 

  1. We make choices with external world, based on our (imagination) _________ today.

 

  1. Imaging is __________ (continuous) with time.

 

  1. The activity of Selecting/tasting is (continuous) ___________

 

  1. What we analyze may keep changing, the activity of analyzing is (continuous)

________

 

  1. When we assume something about on the prevailing notion it is called (preconditioning)__________

 

  1. (realization) __________ means to be able to see the reality as it is.

 

  1. What we really want to be is our (natural acceptance) _______________

 

  1. We can have (right understanding) _______ through the process of (realization)

_______

 

  1. Behaviour on the basis of (realization and understanding) ______ is called (self

organized behaviour) ____

 

  1. Human being is co-existence of (self and body) _______________.

 

  1. The self or I is also called (consciousness) _______________

 

  1. Clothing, nourishment etc are the needs of (body) _______________

 

  1. Trust, respect, happiness etc are the needs of (self) _______________

 

  1. The needs of the self are (continuous) ________ in time and needs of body are (temporary) _____

 

  1. Needs of the body are temporary while the needs of the self are __________.

 

  1. Physical facilities are required in (limited) _______________ quantity.

 

  1. If the needs are naturally acceptable I want them (continuously) _______________

 

  1. The needs of (self) _____ are (qualitative) ______ in nature and we want them continuously

 

  1. The needs of the body are ensured by (physico-chemical) _________ things.

 

  1. The needs of the self are ensured by (right understanding) ______ and (right feeling)

 

  1. _________

 

  1. By (right understanding) __________ we become responsible to ourselves.

 

  1. Choosing and imaging are the activities of (self) ______.

 

  1. Recognition and fulfillment between (material entities) _______is always (definite) _______.

 

  1. In I (self), recognizing and fulfillment depends on(assuming) ______________.

 

  1. The activity of fulfillment depends on the (recognition) _______________

 

  1. Knowing means we have the (right understanding) _______________

 

  1. Any entity that has the activity of recognizing and fulfillment only can be called as (material entity) _____.

 

  1. The feeling of prosperity is the need of (self) _______________.

 

  1. Physical facilities are the need of the (body) _______________

 

  1. Selecting and desiring are the activities of (self)_______________.

 

 

  1. I am the (seer) ________, (doer) _______ and (enjoyer) _______

 

  1. The (Body) ____________ is an (instrument) ___________ of (I – self)

___________.

 

  1. The requirements of body are (nutrition) _____, (protection) _____ and (right utilization)

 

110 . ______

 

  1. (Seer) ______ means the one that understands.

 

112 . The awareness of being is in (I) _______________

 

  1. Seer is also called (drashta) __________ or Drishta refers to (seer) ___________

 

  1. Doer is also called (karta) ____________ or Karta refers to (doer)

_______________

 

  1. Enjoyer is also called (bhokta) __________ or Bhokta refers to (enjoyer)

 

116 . _______________

 

  1. In relationship we want (mutual fulfillment) _______________

 

  1. From physical facilities we want (prosperity) _______________

 

119 . Swasthya leads to (sukh) _________

 

  1. Sanyam represent (self control) ________

 

  1. Swastya refers to (health) ________

 

  1. Unit 3: Harmony in Family and Society

 

  1. Education- right living leads to (Right understanding)______________.

 

  1. The process of education and right living leads to (Right understanding)________ in the individual.

 

  1. The program for health and sanyam leads to feeling of (Prosperity)_________ in family.

 

  1. Ensuring justice in relationship, on the basis of values leads to

(Fearlessness)________ in society.

 

  1. Suraksha of nature via enrichment protection and right utilization leads to

(Co-existence)_______ in nature.

 

  1. Production and work for physical facilities leads to (Prosperity)_____ in family and (co-existence)_____with nature.

 

  1. (Trust)________ is the foundational value in relationship

 

  1. The foundational value in relationship is (Trust)_______.

 

  1. The ability to fulfill the aspirations is called (Competence)________.

 

  1. To be assured of others at all the time is the feeling of (Trust)_______.

 

  1. (Respect)________ means (Right evaluation) ________

 

  1. Any belief in terms of „thought system‟ that we have or that we have adopted is called (Ism‟s)_____.

 

  1. The feeling that other is related to me is called (Affection)__________.

 

  1. The feeling to nurture and protect the body of our relative is called

(Care)________.

 

  1. Ensuring right understanding and feelings in the other is called (Guidance)___________.

 

  1. Acceptance of excellence in others is called (Reverence)__________.

 

  1. (Glory)________ is the feeling for someone who has made efforts for excellence.

 

  1. (Gratitude)________ is the feeling of acceptance for those who have made efforts for my excellence.

 

  1. (Love)_________ is a complete value.

 

  1. The feeling of relatedness to all human beings is called (Affection)_______.

 

  1. Society is an extension of (Family)_________.

 

  1. (Family)________ is the basic unit of human interaction.

 

  1. We are all similar at the level of our (Intension)_________ but differ in

our (Competence) ___________

 

  1. Employing the body physically for production and maintenance of physical

facilities is called (Labour)__________.

 

  1. There is justice in relationship when there is (Mutual fulfillment)_______.

 

  1. The four gems of trust are (effective listening)______, (empathy)_____,

(justice)_____

 

  1. and (honesty)____.

 

  1. She-astitva means (co-existence) _______________

 

  1. Abhay means (fearlessness) _______________

 

  1. (Competence)_________ is the ability to perform a specific task action or function successfully

 

  1. In healthy relationship, I learn to (respect)_______ and (trust)_____ important people in our life

 

  1. The commitment is the only aspect that actually strengthens the (relationship)_________

 

  1. (Education) _________ means the (vision) ________

 

  1. The problems in our relationship with various entities are due to our (assumptions) ____.

 

  1. Comprehensive human goal is right understanding, prosperity, fearlessness and ______.

System Analysis & Design Objectives Set 2

  1. A context diagram is used

A) As the first step in developing a detailed DFD of a system

B) In systems analysis of very complex systems

C) As an aid to system design

D) As an aid to programmer

 

  1. Which of the following is/are the sources for project requests?

A) Request from Department managers

B) Request from senior executives

C) Request from system Analyst

D) All of the above

 

  1. DDS stands for …………………

A) Data Data Systems

B) Data Digital System

C) Data Dictionary Systems

D) Digital Data Service

 

  1. ………….. Phase is a time consuming phase and yet a very crucial phase

A) Feasibility Study

B) Requirement Phase

C) Analysis Phase

D) Testing Phase

 

  1. A DFD is normally leveled as

A) It is a good idea in design

B) It is recommended by many experts

C) it is easy to do it

D) It is easier to read and understand a number of smaller DFDs than one large DFD

 

  1. ………………. is responsible for all aspects of data processing, operation research, organization and method, system analysis and design investments.

A) Management Services Director

B) Data Processing Manager

C) Computer Manager

D) Both B and C

 

  1. ……………… is a tabular method for describing the logic of the decisions to be taken.

A) Decision tables

B) Decision tree

C) Decision Method

D) Decision Data

 

  1. In ……………… system the interaction between various subsystems cannot be defined with certainty

A) Open System

B) Closed System

C) Deterministic System

D) Probabilistic System

 

  1. State True or False.
  • Term of reference is the final output of Feasibility Study
  • Design specification report is the final output of System Analysis

A) 1-true, 2-true

B) 1-false, 2-true

C) 1-true, 2-false

D) 1-false, 2-false

 

  1. The key considerations involved in the feasibility analysis is include

i) Economical ii) Technical iii) Behavioral iv) Personal

A) i, ii, iv

B) i, ii, iii

C) ii, iii, iv

D) All of the above

 

  1. ……………………. refers to the collection of information pertinent to systems project.

A) Data gathering

B) Data Exporting

C) Data Embedding

D) Data importing

 

  1. A physical DFD

A) Has no means of showing material flow

B) Does not concern itself with material flow

C) Can show only stored material

D) Can show the flow of material

 

  1. Development costs for a computer based information system includes……………………

A) Salaries of the system analysis

B) Cost of converting and preparing data

C) Cost of testing and documenting

D) All A, B, C

 

  1. Before developing a logical DFD it is a good idea to

A) Develop a physical DFD

B) Develop a system flow chart

C) Determine the contents of all data stores

D) Find out user’s preferences

 

  1. A data store in a DFD represents

A) A sequential file

B) A disk store

C) A repository of data

D) A random access memory

 

  1. Which of the following is/are major step/s of system design?

A) Specification of system output

B) Development of system flowchart

C) Development of program specifications

D) All A, B, C

 

  1. A data flow can

A) Only enter a data store

B) Only leave a data store

C) Enter or leave data store

D) Either enter or leave a data store but not both

 

  1. ………………… means coordinated effort, to communicate the information of the system in written form.

A) System Documentation

B) System Storage

C) System Record

D) System Share

 

  1. Some of the tools which are available with the system analysis are………………..

A) Review of Documentation & Observation of the situation

B) Conducting Interviews & Questionnaire Administration

C) Both A & B

D) Review of Procedure & Conducting Interviews

 

  1. Data cannot flow between two data stores because

A) It is not allowed in DFD

B) A data store is a passive repository of data

C) Data can get corrupted

D) They will get merged

 

  1. Which of the following is not the characteristics of a system?

(A) Organization

(B) Interaction

(C) Interdependence

(D) Feedback

Answer: D

 

  1. Which of the following determines whether the project should go forward?

(A) Feasibility Assessment

(B) Opportunity Identification

(C) System Evaluation

(D) Program Specification

Answer: A

 

  1. Which of the following is not a type of system tests?

(A) Program Testing

(B) System Testing

(C) System Documentation

(D) Evaluation Process

Answer: D

 

  1. Which of the following is not a fact-finding technique?

(A) Third party enquiry

(B) Interview

(C) Questionnaire

(D) Record reviews

Answer: A

 

  1. Cost-Benefit Analysis is performed during.

(A) Analysis phase

(B) Design phase

(C) Feasibility study phase

(D) Implementation phase

Answer: C

 

  1. Which of the following is not considered a tool at the system Design phase?

(A) Data-Flow Diagram

(B) Decision Table

(C) Pie chart

(D) System Flowchart

Answer: C

 

  1. Which phase of the SDLC are information needs identified?

(A) Preliminary investigation

(B) Systems analysis

(C) Systems design

(D) Systems development

Answer: A

 

  1. The first step in preliminary analysis is to

(A) Purchase supplies

(B) Hire consultants

(C) Define the problem

(D) Propose changes

Answer: C

 

  1. The first step of the systems analysis phase of the SDLC is to

(A) Propose changes

(B) Analyze data

(C) Gather data

(D) Write system analysis report

Answer: C

 

  1. The final step of the systems analysis phase in the SDLC is to

(A) Gather data

(B) write system analysis report

(C) Propose changes

(D) analyze data

Answer: B

 

  1. A feasibility study is used to determine the proposed systems.

(A) Resource requirements

(B) Costs and benefits

(C) Availability of hardware and software

(D) All of the above

Answer: D

 

  1. Which of the following phases of the SDLC is considered as the “ongoing process”?

(A) Systems development

(B) Systems analysis

(C) Systems design

(D) Systems maintenance

Answer: D

 

  1. During a systems audit, the system performance is compared to

(A) Similar systems

(B) Newer systems

(C) The design specifications

(D) Competing systems

Answer: C

 

  1. A graphic representation of an information system is called

(A) Flow Chart

(B) Pictogram

(C) Data flow diagram

(D) Histogram

Answer: Data Flow Diagram

 

  1. A system is a collection of interrelated components that function together to achieve some outcome

(A) True

(B) False

(C) Can’t Say

(D) None

Answer: True

 

  1. Design Phase is followed by

(A) Initial investigation

(B) Feasibility study

(C) Analysis

(D) Implementation

Answer: D

 

  1. A system that is part of a larger system is called a

(A) Subsystem

(B) System unit

(C) System element

(D) None of these

Answer: A

 

  1. ……………….. Includes review of the existing procedures and information flow.

(A) Feasibility Study

(B) Feasibility report

C) System Design

(D) System analysis

Answer: A

 

  1. CBA stands for

(A) Cost Base Analysis

(B) Cost Basic Analysis

(C) Cost Benefit Analysis

(D) None of these

Answer: C

 

  1. The primary activity of a system developer is programming

(A) True

(B) False

(C) Can’t Say

(D) None of these

Answer: B

System Analysis & Design Objectives Set 1

  1. ……………….. includes review of the existing procedures and information flow.

A) Feasibility Study

B) Feasibility report

C) System Design

D) System analysis

 

  1. A rectangle in a DFD represents

A) a process

B) a data store

C) an external entity

D) an input unit

 

  1. …………….. refers to the collection of information pertinent to systems Project.

A) Data transfer

B) Data gathering

C) Data Embedding

D) Data Request

 

  1. ………………….. means coordinated effort, to communicate the information of the system written form.

A) System documentation

B) Resource required

C) Development schedule

D) User Document

 

  1. MDP stands for

A) Master Development Plan

B) Master Design Program

C) Mandatory Database Program

D) Master Database Plan

 

  1. External Entities may be a

A) Source of input data only

B) Source of input data or destination of results

C) Destination of results only

D) Repository of data

 

  1. …………………. is a group of interested components working together towards a common goal by accepting inputs and producing outputs in an organized transformation process.

A) System

B) Network

C) Team

D) System Unit

 

  1. To create vehicle of information to provide evidence in the development process and to monitor the process. This is one of the objectives of

A) Analysis

B) Design

C) Development

D) Documentation

 

  1. A …………. System is no more than idea

A) Conceptual

B) Logical

C) Physical

D) All of the above

 

  1. By an external entity we mean a

A) Unit outside the system being designed which can be controlled by an analyst.

B) Unit outside the system whose behavior is independent of the system being designed

C) A unit external to the system being designed

D) A unit which is not part of a DFD

 

11. …………………………. is an important factor of management information system.

A) System

B) Data

C) Process

D) All

 

12. Which are the following is / are the level(s) of documentation?

A) Documentation for management

B) Documentation for user

C) Documentation for data processing department

D) All of the above

 

13. ………………………….. Level supply information to strategic tier for the use of top Management.

A) Operational

B) Environmental

C) Competitive

D) Tactical

 

14. In a DFD external entities are represented by a

A) Rectangle

B) Ellipse

C) Diamond shaped box

D) Circle

 

15. …………… can be defined as data that has been processed into a form that is meaningful to the recipient and is of real or perceive value in current or prospective decisions.

A) System

B) Information

C) Technology

D) Service

 

16. Use the new system as the same time as the old system to compare the results. This is known as ……

A) Procedure Writing

B) Simultaneous processing

C) Parallel Operation

D) File Conversion

 

17. Decision making model was proposed by ………………….

A) Harry Goode

B) Herbert A Simon

C) Recon Michal

D) None of this

 

18. A data flow can

A) Only emanate from an external entity

B) Only terminate in an external entity

C) May emanate and terminate in an external entity

D) May either emanate or terminate in an external entity but not both

 

19. …………… can be defined as most recent and perhaps the most comprehensive technique for solving computer problems.

A) System Analysis

B) System Data

C) System Procedure

D) System Record

 

20. SDLC stands for

A) System Development Life Cycle

B) Structure Design Life Cycle

C) System Design Life Cycle

D) Structure development Life Cycle

 

21. ………… is a sort of blueprint of the system Development Effort.

A) MDP

B) DMP

C) MPD

D) DPM

 

22. Data store in a DFD represents.

A) A sequential file

B) A disk store

C) A repository of data

D) A random access memory

 

23. …………… system consists of programs, data files and documentation

A) Conceptual

B) Logical

C) Physical

D) None of the above

 

24. …………… is a good example of deterministic system.

A) Life cycle

B) Computer Program

C) Software Program

D) None of the above

 

25. The main ingredient of the report documenting the ……………… is the cost benefit analysis.

A) System Analysis

B) Feasibility Study

C) System Analyst

D) System Design

 

26. A data flow can

A) Only a data store

B) Only leave a data store

C) Enter or leave a data Store

D) Either enter or leave a data store but not both

 

27. Changing the relationship with and services provided to customers in such a way that they will not think of changing suppliers is called ………….

A) Lock in Customers

B) Lock out customers

C) Lock in competitors

D) Lock out competitors

 

28. …………… can be defined as data that has been processed into a form that is meaningful to the recipient and is of real or perceived value in current or prospective decisions.

A) Information

B) Data collection

C) Internal data

D) Sample data

 

29. Increased volume of sales is an example of ………….…. Benefit. Reduction of bad debts is an example of ………..

A) Tangible, Intangible

B) Tangible, Tangible

C) Intangible, Tangible

D) Intangible, Intangible

 

30. A data cannot flow between a store and

i) a store ii) a process iii) an external entity

A) i and iii

B) i and ii

C) ii and iii

D) ii

 

31. A ……………… system in no more than idea.

A) Conceptual

B) Logical

C) Physical

D) None

 

32. Design Phase consists of …………………….

  1. Identity the functions to be performed
  2. Design the input/output and file design
  3. Defining basic parameters for system design

A) 1 & 2

B) 2 & 3

C) 1 & 3

D) 1, 2 & 3

 

33. A context diagram

A) Describes the context of a system

B) is a DFD which gives an overview of the system

C) is a detailed description of a system

D) is not used in drawing a detailed DFD

 

34. HIPO stand for

A) Hierarchy input process output

B) Hierarchy input plus output

C) Hierarchy plus input process output

D) Hierarchy input output Process

 

35. Statement of scope and objectives, opportunities and performance criteria ………….

A) Problem definition

B) System analysis

C) System Design

D) Documentation

 

36. Information can be categorized into …………….

  1. Environmental information
  2. Competitive information
  3. Government information
  4. Internal information

A) 1, 2 & 3

B) 1, 2 & 4

C) 2, 3 & 4

D) 1, 3 & 4

 

37. System Development process is also called as ……………..

A) System Development Life Cycle

B) System Life Cycle

C) Both A and B

D) System Process Cycle

 

38. The output of problem definition stage is ……………..

A) Master Development Plan

B) Terms of reference

C) Feasibility report

D) Final product

 

39. Advantages of system flowcharts ………………….

A) Effective communication

B) Effective analysis

C) Queasier group or relationships

D) All A, B, C

 

40. Based on the identification of objectives, input, output and file content, the vital document is called….…

A) System Definition

B) System Document

C) System Requirement Document

D) System Subject

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