Project Management objectives Set 2
Q1. A communication management plan identifies the relevant information that should be communicated to:
- The project team.
- The project stakeholders.
- The project board.
- The project sponsor.
Q2. Which one of the following statements is true?
- Independent reviews and quality audits form part of quality assurance to ensure the project manager delivers on time and to budget.
- Quality assurance provides confidence to stakeholders that requirements for quality will be exceeded.
- Quality control verifies that the project deliverables conform to specification, are fit for purpose and meet stakeholder expectations.
- Quality planning enables the project manager to manage the trade-off between customer expectations and budget.
Q3. Project risk management is best described as:
- Managing responses to threats.
- Identifying and acknowledging threats and opportunities.
- Planning responses to threats.
- Minimising threats and maximising opportunities.
Q4. Which one of the following best describes a project issue?
- A major problem that requires formal escalation.
- A problem that the project manager has to deal with on a day-to-day basis.
- An uncertain event that may or may not occur.
- An opportunity that occurs through change control.
Q5. Scheduling can best be defined as the process used to determine:
- overall project duration.
- project cost estimating.
- the project management plan.
- sub-contractor’s responsibilities.
Q6. Which one of the following statements is true?
- An increase in project scope is likely to increase project cost.
- A decrease in the project time is likely to increase project quality.
- An increase in the project quality requirements is likely to decrease project cost.
- A decrease in the project cost is likely to decrease project time.
Q7. Which one of the following statements best defines the purpose of a Product Breakdown Structure (PBS)?
- To define the hierarchy of deliverables that are required to be produced on the project.
- To define how the products are produced by identifying derivations and dependencies.
- To establish the extent of work required prior to project commissioning and the handover.
- To identify the health and safety strategies and procedures to be used on the project.
Q8. Which one of the following is least likely to be a success criteria?
- A target for the project to receive zero change requests.
- The date by which the project is to be completed.
- Delivery of products that meet required specifications.
- The awarding of bonuses to senior management.
Q9. Which one of the following is a valid project Key Performance Indicator (KPI)?
- Staff appraisals.
- Management buy in.
- Milestone achievement.
- Master schedule.
Q10. Which one of the following statements is true?
- The business case is owned by the sponsor and is created during the concept phase of the project life cycle.
- The business case is owned by the project manager and is created during the concept phase of the project life cycle.
- The business case is owned by the sponsor and is created during definition phase of the project life cycle.
- The business case is owned by the project manager and is created during the definition phase of the project life cycle.
Q11. Who owns the Project Management Plan (PMP)?
- The project team.
- The chief executive.
- The project manager.
- The project support office.
Q12. Which one of the following best describes users?
- Providers of both strategic and tactical direction to the project.
- Those intended to receive benefits or operate outputs.
- Facilitators of an appropriate issue resolution procedure.
- Those providing full-time commitment to the project.
Q13. Which statement best describes a responsibility of the project manager:
- to be the sole source of expertise for estimating techniques on cost and time.
- to deliver the project objectives to enable benefits to be realised.
- to take ultimate accountability for the delivery of the business benefits.
- to delegate all accountability for managing time, cost and quality to team leaders.
Q14. A project is typically defined in terms of scope, time, cost and which other parameter?
- Benefits.
- Quality.
- Tolerance.
- Controls.
Q15. Which one of the following statements is true?
- Business-as-usual activities cannot be improved.
- Business-as-usual activities are more difficult to manage than projects.
- Projects are transient endeavours that bring about change to business-as-usual.
- A project is always the starting point for operation refinement.
Q16. What is defined as “the ability to influence and align others towards a common purpose”?
- Teamwork.
- Motivation.
- Management.
- Leadership.
Q17. Which one is a true statement relating to project communications?
- A project sponsor is responsible for all communication methods and media.
- Different stakeholders typically have different communication needs.
- It is best to have a standard set of project reports used for every project.
- Email is the only way to communicate with large numbers of people.
Q18. In project management, the term quality is best defined as:
- inspection, testing and measurement.
- reviews and audits.
- fitness for purpose of deliverables.
- professionally-bound project reports.
Q19. The main outcome of risk identification, in a risk management process, is to:
- identify and determine the relative importance of the project risks.
- identify and describe all risks that might occur on the project.
- identify and determine the responses to the project risks.
- identify and describe risks that have occurred on previous projects.
Q20. Which one of the following is not considered in resource management?
- Identifying resources.
- Influencing resources.
- Assigning resources to activities.
- Matching resources to the schedule.
Q21. Which one of the following does project change control primarily seek to ensure?
- All variance to the project scope is evaluated.
- No reduction in the perceived quality of the project outcome.
- Management costs of the project do not increase.
- Any decrease in the scoped deliverable of the project is rejected.
Q22. Which one of the following is captured in the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)?
- The life cycle phases.
- The logical order of tasks.
- The scope of the project.
- Project costs.
Q23. Project reporting can best be defined as:
- informing stakeholders about the project.
- storing and archiving of project information.
- gathering stakeholder feedback.
- collecting project information.
Q24. Which one of the following statements best defines an estimate?
- An approximation of project time and cost targets, refined throughout the project life cycle.
- A prediction of a future condition or event based on information or knowledge available now.
- The value of useful work done at any given point in a project to give a measure of progress.
- A situation that affects or influences the outcome of the project expressed in time or cost terms.
Q25. The justification for the investment to be made in a project is documented in the:
- Cost Breakdown Structure.
- procurement strategy.
- business case.
- Project Management Plan.
Q26. Which one of the following is a responsibility of the project steering group/board?
- To identify potential problems for the project team to solve.
- To provide strategic direction and guidance to the sponsor.
- To manage the project team in all daily activities.
- To receive and consider daily reports from team members.
Q27. One of the reasons a project life cycle is split into phases is to:
- facilitate formal go/no-go decision making during the project.
- balance the costs of work in each phase of project development.
- mirror the major deployments of resources throughout the project.
- chunk work into time periods of similar durations.
Q28. Which of the following best describes a project environment?
- The type of organisation concerned with implementation.
- The structured method used to control the project.
- The context within which a project is undertaken.
- An understanding of the risks involved in the project.
Q29. Which one of the following statements best describes a project?
- A project is a set of tools and techniques often used when delivering organisational change.
- A project is the sum of activities needed to remove uncertainty from a unique piece of work.
- A unique transient endeavour undertaken to achieve a desired outcome.
- A project is a method of planning work.
Q30. The document that identifies what information needs to be shared, to whom, why, when and how is called the:
- communication management plan.
- stakeholder mapping grid.
- document distribution schedule.
- responsibility assignment matrix.
Q31. An important aim of a post-project review is to:
- validate overall progress to date against the budget and schedule.
- capture learning and document it for future usage.
- ensure acceptance of all permanent documentation, signed by the sponsor.
- establish that project benefits have been identified.
Q32. The process that evaluates overall project performance to provide confidence is called:
- quality assurance.
- quality planning.
- quality control.
- quality audit.
Q33. Which one of the following statements about the project risk register is false?
- It facilitates the review and monitoring of risks.
- It facilitates the risk appetite.
- It facilitates the recording of risk responses.
- It facilitates the recording of risks.
Q34. Which one of the following statements best defines procurement?
- A technique to establish the best approach for obtaining the resources for the project.
- A group of interrelated resources and activities that transform inputs into outputs.
- The description of the purpose, form and components to support delivery of a product.
- The process by which products and services required for the project are acquired.
Q35. Once a change has been requested what is the next step in the change control process?
- Evaluate the change.
- Advise the sponsor.
- Update the change log.
- Update the project plan.
Q36. A Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM) can be used to:
- define the terms of reference of the project manager.
- define the limits of the project sponsor’s responsibilities.
- allocate risk management response activities to project personnel.
- allocate work packages to those responsible for project work.
Q37. An Organisational Breakdown Structure (OBS) is used to identify:
- the reporting structure and current availability of all individuals in the project.
- technical ability and line of communication for all individuals in the project.
- lines of communication and responsibility for all the individual managers in the project.
- the reporting structure and lines of communication for all individuals in the projects.
Q38. Which one of the following best describes project success criteria?
- Actively seeking some senior management support.
- Measures by which the success of the project is judged.
- Achievement of milestones.
- A motivated project team.
Q39. Comparative estimating uses:
- current data from similar projects.
- historic data from all projects.
- historic data from similar projects.
- current data from all projects.
Q40. Which one of the following best describes a project stakeholder?
- A party who is concerned about the project going ahead.
- A party with an interest or role in the project or is impacted by the project.
- A party who has a vested interest in the outcome of the project.
- A party who has a financial stake in the organisation managing the project.
Q41. The main purpose of the Project Management Plan is to:
- provide justification for undertaking the project in terms of evaluating the benefit, cost and risk of alternative options.
- ensure the project sponsor has tight control of the project manager’s activity.
- document the outcomes of the planning process and provide the reference document for managing the project.
- document the outcome of the risk, change and configuration management processes.
Q42. Who has ultimate responsibility for project risk?
- Steering group.
- Risk owner.
- Project sponsor.
- Project manager.
Q43. When a project has completed the handover and closure phase:
- the project deliverables are ready for commissioning.
- the project deliverables are ready for handing over to the users.
- the project documentation must be disposed of.
- the capability is now in place for the benefits to be realised.
Q44. Which one of the following illustrates why effective project management is beneficial to an organisation?
- It utilises resources as and when required under direction of a project manager.
- It advocates employing a consultancy firm which specialises in managing change.
- It recommends using only highly skilled people in the project team.
- It ensures that the chief executive is accountable for the achievement of the defined benefits.
Q45. A key aspect of managing a project involves:
- defining which operational systems to put in place.
- identifying routine tasks.
- ensuring ongoing operations are maintained.
- planning to achieve defined objectives.
Q46. Which one of the following statements best defines teamwork?
- People working collaboratively towards a common goal.
- Developing skills that will enhance project performance.
- Gathering the right people together to work on a project.
- Establishing vision and direction towards a common purpose.
Q47. A review undertaken to decide whether a project should proceed into its next phase is known as a:
- gate review.
- feasibility study.
- milestone review.
- evaluation review.
Q48. Which one of the following statements best describes the use of an issue log?
- A summary of all possible alternative resolutions of an issue.
- A summary of all the project issues, their analysis and status.
- A tool to ensure that a process is in place for capturing all issues.
- A tool to ensure that the issue management process is adhered to.
Q49. The main aim of a project risk management process should be to:
- identify project risks and then manage them appropriately.
- identify all project risks and transfer them immediately.
- identify all the things that are threats or opportunities on a project.
- satisfy the organisation’s project management process.
Q50. What is a visual representation of a project’s planned activities against a calendar called?
- A Gantt chart.
- A critical path network.
- A product flow diagram.
- A Pareto chart.
Q51. Configuration management is best described as:
- control in the implementation of changes to project schedules.
- an organisation to review proposed changes to the project deliverables.
- quality control of project deliverables and documentation.
- creation, maintenance and controlled change of the project deliverables.
Q52. A Cost Breakdown Structure (CBS) shows costs assigned to:
- individual work packages using the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS).
- individual resources using the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS).
- individual resources using the Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM).
- individual deliverables using the Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM)
Q53. The accuracy of an estimate should:
- Decrease as a project progresses through its life cycle.
- Increase as a project progresses through its life cycle.
- Stay constant throughout the project life cycle.
- Vary independently of where the project is in its life cycle.
Q54. Which one of the following best defines a benefit?
- A positive result of stakeholder management.
- The successful management of a project.
- An improvement resulting from project deliverables.
- The successful delivery of project reports and updates.
Q55. Which one of the following is true for the Project Management Plan (PMP)?
- The Project Management Plan is developed by the project manager and team and owned by the sponsor.
- A draft of the Project Management Plan is developed by the sponsor at the same time as the business case.
- The Project Management Plan is developed by the sponsor and owned by the project manager.
- The Project Management Plan is developed by the project manager and team and owned by the project manager.
Q56. Who are project team members primarily accountable to?
- External stakeholders.
- The end users.
- The finance director.
- The project manager.
Q57. The phases of a project life cycle are:
- Starting, planning, control and closing.
- Concept, definition, development, handover and closure.
- Initiation, definition, planning, monitoring and operations.
- Concept, definition, implementation and operations.
Q58. A portfolio can best be defined as:
- A group of projects and programmes carried out within an organisation.
- A group of programmes carried out under the sponsorship of an organisation.
- A group of projects carried out under the sponsorship of an organisation.
- A range of products and services offered by an organisation.
Q59. Which one of the following best describes project management?
- Using APM’s Body of Knowledge 6th edition as a guide to all projects.
- Employing a project manager who has undertaken similar projects.
- Utilising team members who can work on a project full time.
- Application of processes and methods throughout the project life cycle.
Q60. Which structure shows the reporting relationships and communications channels for a project?
- Work Breakdown Structure.
- Organisational Breakdown Structure.
- Product Breakdown Structure.
- Responsibility assignment structure.