Category: Question Bank

Management Notes / Question Bank

Services Marketing Objectives Set 1

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SET 1

Q1. Which of the following statements are incorrect?

  1. Services are intangible
  2. Services are perishable
  3. Services can be co‐produced with customers
  4. Services are invariable

 

Q2. When a music concert is recorded in a CD, which of the following sentences are correct?

  1. The CD becomes a service
  2. The CD becomes a service product
  3. The CD becomes both neither product nor service
  4. The concert and the CD together become a service with a tangible product.

 

Q3. Service is somewhat like a rental. The statement is

  1. incorrect
  2. correct
  3. somewhat correct
  4. none of the above

 

Q4. Services Marketing is an attractive field of study for India because:

  1. Services contribute to more than half of India’s GDP
  2. Services are delivered by more than half of India’s population
  3. Services are more important than agriculture and manufacturing
  4. All of the above

 

Q5. You watch the scenery while traveling in a bus from one city to another. This is an example of:

  1. superior service quality
  2. by‐service
  3. waste service
  4. augmented service

 

Q6. Servicescape refers to:

  1. service landscape
  2. service factory
  3. Place where the service is delivered
  4. beautiful service landscape

 

Q7. In the service system, customers may specify their needs and expectations to the service provider. Such specifications are called

  1. feedback
  2. feed‐forward
  3. how and why specifications
  4. none of the above

 

Q8. Services are delivered within the marketing environment. The macro‐environment can be analysed using which of the following tools?

  1. SWOT
  2. PEST
  3. TOWS
  4. None of the above

 

Q9. High speed Internet is an enabler between supplier push and consumer pull as reasons for growth in services. Other enabler is

  1. High‐Tech products
  2. High‐Tech services
  3. Low‐tech products
  4. Low‐tech services

 

Q10. The technological environment affects a company and its products and services. Information technology is capable of providing service outcomes which are:

  1. bit‐based
  2. atom‐based
  3. molecule‐based
  4. none of the above

 

SET 2

  1. A ______________________ is a form of product that consists of activities, benefits, or satisfactions offered for sale that are essentially intangible and do not result in the ownership of anything.
  • Service
  • Demand
  • Need
  • Physical object

 

  1. Distinct characteristic of services is_____________
  • Intangibility
  • Inseparability
  • Variability
  • Perishability

 

  1. All of the following are examples of services, Except
  • banking
  • hotels and motels
  • Tax preparation
  • computer software

 

  1. Services are typically produced and consumer simultaneously. This is an example of the ________characteristics of services.
  • Intangibility
  • Variability
  • Inseparability
  • Simultaneously
  • Perishability

 

  1. Services cannot be stored. This describes the ___________characteristic of services.
  • Intangibility
  • Variability
  • Inseperability
  • Inconsistency
  • Perishability

 

  1. Examples of pure tangible goods include all of the following EXCEPT:
  • Soap
  • Tax preparation
  • Toothpaste
  • Salt

 

  1. __________describes the employees skills in serving the client.
  • Internal Marketing
  • External Marketing
  • Relationship marketing
  • Interactive marketing
  • Communication Marketing

 

  1. SSTS refers to __________
  • Service Standards Testing
  • Self- Service Technologies
  • Standard Service Technologies
  • Self Service Treatments

 

  1. _____________ occurs when a company intentionally uses services as the, and goods as the props, to engage individual customers in a way that creates a memorable event.
  • Hybrid offer
  • Core service
  • Augmented or ancillary product
  • Experience

 

  1. Top firms audit service performance by collecting_________measurements to probe customer satisfiers and dissatisfiers
  • Customer satisfier
  • Customer complaint
  • Voice of the customer
  • Psychological

 

  1. The services a customer expects are called the ______service package.
  • Expected
  • Augmented
  • Primary
  • Secondary
  • Perceived

 

12. The fact that a business traveler may have one very positive check-in experience at a hotel and then a very negative check-in experience with a different employee on a subsequent visit is evidence of service:

  • intangibility
  • inseparability
  • Variability
  • Perishability

 

  1. Added features to an offering are called _________service features.
  • Expected
  • Augmented
  • Primary
  • Secondary
  • Perceived

 

  1. The intangibility of services has implications for the choice of ________
  • Brand elements
  • Location
  • Price
  • Product features
  • Channels of distribution

 

  1. _______ cost refers to the product purchase cost plus the discounted cost of maintenance and repair less the discounted salvage value.
  • Total
  • Variable
  • Life cycle
  • Net
  • Out of pocket

 

  1. Successful service companies focus their attention on both their customers and their employees. They understand _____, which links service firm profits with employee and customer satisfaction
  • Internal Marketing
  • Service-profit chains
  • Interactive Marketing
  • Service differentiation

 

  1. if a firm is practicing ____________________, the firm is training and effectively Motivating it’s customer-contact employees and all of the supporting service people to work as a Team to provide customer satisfaction.
  • Double-up marketing
  • Internal marketing
  • Interactive marketing
  • Service marketing

 

  1. According to Parasuraman, Zeithaml & Berry, the most important determinant of service quality is:
  • Responsiveness
  • Reliability
  • Assurance
  • Empathy
  • Tangibles

 

  1. The extended marketing mix for services includes: People, Processes and ________?
  • Product
  • Place
  • Physical Evidence
  • Promotion

 

  1. Which of the following is not an element of physical evidence?
  • Employee Dress
  • Employee Training
  • Equipment
  • Facility Design

 

  1. Which of the following is not an element of people?
  • Motivation
  • Teamwork
  • Flow of activities
  • Customer Training

 

  1. Standardized and customized flow of activities, simple and complex number of steps and customer involvement by which a service is delivered is called
  • Place Mix.
  • Physical evidence Mix.
  • Process Mix.
  • People Mix.

 

  1. _____ is the environment in which the service is delivered and where the firm and customer interact and any tangible components that facilitates performance or communication of the service.
  • Physical evidence
  • Process
  • Place
  • People

 

  1. All human actors who play a part in service delivery and thus influence the buyers perceptions: namely , the firms personnel,, the customer and other customers in the service environment.
  • Process
  • Physical environment
  • People
  • Place

 

  1. ____________ is a tool for simultaneously depicting the service process, the points of customer contact and the evidence of service from the customers point of view.
  • Front of Planning
  • Service Blueprinting
  • Service standardization
  • None of these

 

  1. __________ is the physical surroundings or the physical facility where the service is produced, delivered and consumed.
  • Servicespace
  • Servicescape
  • Serviceplace
  • Servicescope

 

  1. _______ are the only service distributors which do not require direct human interactions.
  2. Electronic channels
  3. SST’s
  4. Direct service channel
  5. Speculative channels

 

  1. In the absence of a physical product, service providers need to consider the use of ______________ that enable customers to make a judgment on the service quality.
  2. Intangible clues
  3. Tangible clues
  4. Blueprint
  5. Performance measures

 

  1. Compared with low-contact services, customers of high-contact services are more likely to judge service quality on the basis of:
  • Price of the service
  • Processes used in carrying out the service
  • Intangible outcomes eg. The performance of an investment portfolio
  • Tangible outcomes

 

  1. Which of the following is not generally accepted as being part of the extended Marketing mix for services?
  • Product
  • Price
  • Process
  • Practice
Management Notes / Question Bank

IHRM Objectives Set 2

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  1. Pay increases linked to inflation are given to all employees regardless of their performance in which country
  • Australia
  • Thailand
  • Japan
  • United States

  1. Unions that include workers who have a common skill are
  • Craft unions
  • industry unions
  • craft guilds
  • trades unions

  1. Industrial relations in Japan and Singapore is characterised by
  • a ‘them and us’ attitude
  • militant unions
  • Cooperation and employee identification with the company and its objectives
  • a feeling of exploitation and insecurity

  1. When building employees working near a Chinese restaurant were paid an allowance because the cooking aromas made them hungry it was called
  • hardship allowance
  • stress pay
  • Danger pay
  • dim sim allowance

  1. When implementing industrial relations practices overseas an Australian head office should ensure coordination so that
  • policies are the same as in Australia
  • Practices adhere to and reinforce strategic HRM philosophies and policies and are in harmony with the desired corporate culture
  • all employees belong to key trade unions in the industry
  • concessions are made in each country so that operations can run smoothly
  1. What percentage of the Chinese labour market are illiterate?
  • 15 %
  • 23 %
  • 32 %
  • 44 %

  1. Foreign enterprises in China face HR challenges in all of the following areas except
  • recruitment and selection
  • performance appraisals
  • compensation and benefits
  • Human resource planning

  1. Chinese enterprises rely heavily on which method of selection
  • personality testing
  • assessment centres
  • Interviews
  • psychological testing

  1. A situation where an employee is guaranteed a job for their entire working life is known as
  • Lifelong employment
  • organisational loyalty
  • employee commitment
  • job security

  1. Unions that only represent the interests of employees working for a single employer or enterprise are
  • Trade unions
  • craft unions
  • Enterprise Unions
  • industry unions

True/False Questions

  1. Differing national cultures have no impact on strategic business objectives, corporate culture and the way companies operate.

False

  1. The development of the global marketplace and global organisations has been influenced by work force mobility.

True

  1. There is no difference between domestic and international HRM.

False

4. When a person from one culture communicates with a person from another culture they are engaging in cross-cultural communications.

True

5. Chinese and Japanese negotiators use silence in their business meetings and negotiations.

True

6. Establishing and maintaining ethical standards in an international business setting can be difficult because of the different views of what is right and wrong, a moral duty and an obligation.

True

7. According to the 1997 United Nations World Development Report, 15 % of all companies in industrialised countries have to pay bribes to win and retain business.

True

8. The sharing of a set of moral values so that expectations of regular and honest behaviour are created leads to the development of trust.

True

9. Effective managers use one consistent style of management in all situations.

False

10. All countries have anti-discrimination laws and have legislation in place to ensure that they are enforced.  

False

11. Companies that operate internationally find that transplanting an existing performance appraisal system from head office is very effective.

False

12. It may be necessary to use different criteria from that used at head office to evaluate expatriate performance.

True

13. When an organisation enters the international training and development area the HR manager must consider issues of ethnocentricity.

True

14. National culture does not have any impact on compensation strategies.

False

15. US company Lincoln Electric found that its incentive program based on the belief that all employees would be willing to work harder to increase their incomes was highly successful in the United States, Canada and Australia but a failure in Germany because of employee attitudes towards risk taking.

True

16. Unions have considerable economic and political clout in Hong Kong and Taiwan.

False

17. Performance appraisal in China focuses on performance, skill achievements and merit.

False

18. In Japan, a seniority system exists, where the length of time that an employee has worked with an organisation is given recognition and priority for promotions and salary increases.

True

19. Unions that only represent the interests of employees working for a single employer or enterprise are industry unions.

False

20. In international business, the underlying impact of culture is evident in the way people interact with and manage others.

True

Management Notes / Question Bank

IHRM Objectives Set 1

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Multiple Choice Questions

  1. Factors creating the global marketplace include all of the following except
  • Lowering of costs of doing business globally
  • privatisation and globalisation of government services
  • growth in domestic businesses
  • satellites and computer technology

  1. Someone who lives and works in a foreign country is a(n)   
  • Expatriate
  • holiday maker
  • international jet-setter
  • immigrant

  1. A major difference between International HRM and Domestic HRM is the
  • Increased complexities such as currency fluctuations, foreign HR policies and practices, and differing labour laws
  • number of employees covered by the HR policies
  • ease with which employees adjust to new cultures
  • development of effective cross-boarder management styles

  1. HRM as practised by multinational organisations is called
  • global HRM
  • personnel management practices
  • domestic HRM
  • International HRM

  1. The key questions to be asked when developing an international HRM policy is
  • who is going to coordinate the HRM functions?
  • What type of organisation is desired?
  • how can cross-boarder training be designed?
  • when should the HR manager begin developing HR policies?

  1. Whirlpool’s use of a performance management system worldwide is an example of           
  • extended management control over employees
  • attempts to increase productivity in all its branches
  • An international HRM policy
  • a policy that has adopted a global village philosophy

  1. To be effective in the international environment HRM policies must
  • Reflect an international view
  • focus on domestic issues
  • accommodate differences in management styles
  • effectively transplant HRM policies and practices from the home country to all other offices

  1. Organisations that do not adopt a strategic HRM approach and a global vision
  • develop effective two-way communication
  • Are virtually guaranteed to fail
  • find it easier to implement traditional HRM activities
  • have much more flexibility in responding to environmental changes

  1. When a person from one culture communicates with a person from another culture they are engaging in
  • Cross-cultural communication
  • two-way communication
  • multi-focus communication
  • verbal communication

  1. Cultures where non-verbal communications and indirect language are used to transfer meaning are described as:
  • low-context cultures
  • medium-context cultures
  • context cultures
  • High-context cultures

  1. Cultures where verbal communications are explicit and direct are    
  • Low-context cultures
  • medium-context cultures
  • context cultures
  • high-context cultures

  1. The Japanese have a high-context culture, and therefore prefer to communicate
  • by fax
  • by email
  • face to face
  • both (a) and (b)

  1. What is good and bad or right and wrong, or has to deal with moral duty and obligation is referred to as
  • responsibilities
  • ethics
  • social expectations
  • standards

  1. Fraud, bribery, graft and the payment of secret commissions and kickbacks is
  • Corruption
  • normal business practice
  • standard behaviour
  • an ethical dilemma

  1. In the year 2000 the most corrupt economies in the world were listed as
  • Finland, Denmark and New Zealand
  • Australia, the United Kingdom and Japan
  • Nigeria, Indonesia and Yugoslavia
  • United States, Korea and India

  1. To help their managers deal with corruption in different countries BHP and      
  • limited their business operations to countries that have similar business practices to those of their home country
  • Produced a list of guidelines to help managers deal with the corruption quagmire
  • decided to judge business operations in other countries by their own standards
  • issued a blanket instruction to all managers not to enter into any arrangement that would be considered illegal or unethical back home

  1. It has been recommended that companies take the following steps to ensure that their responses to different cultural environments are appropriate and ethical, with the exception of
  • develop a clearly articulated set of core values as the basis for global policies and decision making
  • train employees to ask questions that will help them to make business decisions that are both culturally sensitive and flexible within the context of those core values
  • balance the need for policy with the need for flexibility or imagination
  • Instruct managers to offer no inducements or incentives to win support for business developments

  1. Developing the long-term business relationship needed in joint ventures requires
  • The building of trust and commitment
  • heavy financial investment
  • favourable foreign currency exchange
  • effective management skills

  1. Trust is influenced by 
  • ethical standards
  • personality
  • Culture
  • philosophy of life

  1. Australia and the United States are examples of
  • low trust cultures
  • High trust cultures
  • no trust cultures
  • conditional trust cultures

  1. The particular approach used by a manager to achieve goals through other people is described as
  • leadership
  • situational behaviour
  • Management style
  • achievement approach

  1. In cultures that emphasise hierarchy and status employees expect the overriding style of their managers to be
  • participative
  • egalitarian
  • consultative
  • Autocratic

  1. Employees in countries such as Australia and the United States, expect to have a much greater say in decision making and more autonomy in their work. These cultures have been described as having
  • Low power distance
  • high power distance
  • equality of status
  • cooperative work environments

  1. In high power distance countries such as China and Korea employees expect
  • to have a say in all decision making
  • Their managers to make the decisions and tell them what to do
  • to be asked their opinion about changes to work processes
  • managers to delegate a great deal of the decision making responsibility to their subordinates

  1. Equal opportunity laws are
  • rigidly enforced in all countries
  • an attempt to monitor the organisation’s treatment of job applicants
  • The product of society’s social values
  • both (a) and (b)

  1. HR issues that will require adaptation to fit different cultures include all of the following except
  • training and development
  • performance appraisal
  • compensation
  • Job analysis

  1. In Thai firms performance evaluation is based on
  • The employee’s attitude towards the company rather than on actual job performance
  • job performance and political attitudes
  • the quality of personal relations, political attitudes and output
  • standard of job performance

  1. Which of the following was not suggested by Stone as a suitable criteria for the evaluation of expatriate performance
  • technical skills
  • Language proficiency
  • work performed
  • personality variables

  1. All aspects of training and development in international organisations are affected by all of the following except     
  • cultural differences
  • diversity of the work force
  • Financial costs
  • language differences

  1. Hong Kong Chinese managers and Western managers have different approaches for all of the following except
  • giving and securing feedback
  • Identifying training and development needs
  • handling conflict
  • learning

  1. Japanese firms stress the importance of what type of training
  • leadership
  • communication
  • interpersonal skills
  • Technical knowledge

  1. When an organisation enters the international training and development area, the HR manager needs to
  • Be sensitive to local customs and expectations
  • identify costs of developing cross-boarded programs
  • develop programs that focus on enhancing technical skills and knowledge
  • ensure that training and development programs are clearly linked to compensation management

 

  1. Cultures that value hierarchy and status differentials will have compensation strategies that
  • have an emphasis on individual achievements
  • Promote and reinforce differentials
  • minimise status differentials
  • are based on group performance and individual seniority

 

  1. Compensation strategies that reward individual performance and the acquisition of individual skills and know-how are common in
  • Individualistic cultures
  • egalitarian cultures
  • collectivist cultures
  • risk-averse cultures

35. Bureaucratic reward systems that emphasise fixed pay are preferred in

  • individualistic cultures
  • group-oriented cultures
  • Risk-averse cultures
  • egalitarian cultures
Question Bank

SHRM Objectives Set 2

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  1. Which selection method remains the most used by organisations?
  • Interviews
  • Ability tests
  • References
  • A trial period

 

  1. Which items below are’ forms of perceptual errors made during the selection process?
  • Like-me judgements
  • A candidate’s time-keeping
  • The interview setting
  • The time of day

 

  1. Which of the below is a form of interview used in candidate selection?
  • The appraisal interview
  • The competency based interview
  • The disciplinary interview
  • The return to work interview

 

  1. The interview is used as a method for determining:
  • The personality of the candidate
  • The degree of fit between the applicant and the demands of the job.
  • His/her age.
  • Physical attributes

 

  1. According to the Leitch Review of Skills (2006), the ability of firms to succeed in the face of growing international competition depends increasingly on;
  • Work culture
  • Relaxed legal system
  • Good infrastructure
  • Skilled labour

 

  1. What is the main reason employers give why employees are not fully proficient?
  • Lack of experience
  • Over qualified
  • Lack of numeracy skills
  • Lack of literacy skills

 

  1. Which of the stages below are part of the Systematic Training Cycle?
  • Analyse operating conditions
  • Design training
  • Deliver on time
  • Evaluate customer feedback

 

  1. What is the main disadvantage of off-the-job learning?
  • It isn’t always directly related to real organisational issues and needs
  • The time needed to set up
  • Accessibility for those training
  • Long term costs

 

  1. A cultural view of learning considers the values and norms of communities through:
  • Myths, legends and proverbs
  • Music, song and dance
  • Rituals, language and religion
  • Talk, practices and stories

 

  1. What is a ‘communities of practice’ approach to organisational learning?
  • An approach that focuses on practising ‘best practice’
  • An approach that focuses on the values, beliefs and norms of a social group
  • An approach that focuses on the skills embedded within the group
  • An approach that has a clear set of defined practices to use in all situations

 

  1. Chase’s study (1997) identified what issue as being the biggest obstacle to creating a knowledge creating company?
  • Limited resources for training and development
  • Organisational culture
  • Failure of management
  • Inability to access learning material

 

  1. What is the most common form of organisational intervention designed to improve employee wellbeing?
  • Secondary and tertiary
  • Primary
  • Variable
  • Best-fit

 

  1. What are the main aims of Employee Assistance Programmes?
  • To alter the organisational culture
  • To address team and individuaf performance and well-being in the workplace
  • To focus the attention Of employees to the power structures of an organization
  • To establish effective methods of care and support for ‘everyone in an organization

 

  1. How does the selection of an international assignee usually take place?
  • Formal interview process with internal staff.
  • Informal discussion based on chance conversations with internal staff.
  • Informal discussion between each member of a specific team.
  • Formal recruitment process that includes internal and external candidates

 

  1. Which multinational bank used business sponsors to monitor international assignees?
  • Oman International Bank
  • Falcon International
  • HSBC
  • Barclays

 

  1. What is the major problem with the theorizing of strategic IHRM?
  • It becomes obsolete very quickly as change occurs so fast
  • It is biased towards western ideas
  • It tends to offer a highly idealised perspective on strategy formulation
  • It fails to incorporate conflict

 

  1. How can HRM help to build successful cross-border alliances?
  • By ensuring that organisations spend 25% of their budgets on cross-border alliances
  • By ensuring that a strategy is in place before embarking on a cross-border alliance
  • By ensuring that organisations export their ideas to other societies and cultures
  • By ensuring that international joint ventures are staffed by high-quality managers

 

  1. Which of the following statements most accurately defines human resource management?
  • human resource management contributes to business strategy and plays and important role in the implementation of business strategy
  • human resource management is an approach to managing people
  • human resource management seeks to achieve competitive advantage through the strategic deployment of a highly committed and capable workforce, using an integrated array of cultural, structural and personnel techniques
  • human resource management focuses on people as the source of competitive advantage

 

  1. Which of the following techniques are not connected with human resource planning?
  • succession planning
  • management of change
  • simple linear regression
  • Markov matrix analysis

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT true of the activity known as job analysis?
  • it aims to describe the purpose of a job and the conditions under which it is performed.
  • the job elements are rated in terms such as frequency of use or amount of time involved
  • the rate of pay for the job is fixed
  • jobs are broken into elements such as information or relations with other people

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a common criticism of using personality tests in selection?
  • Good performers in the same job may have different personalities
  • There are no reliable instruments with which to assess personality
  • An individual’s personalitycan vary with circumstances
  • Candidates can fake the answers, so giving a misleading impression

 

  1. Which of the following is not a recruitment technique?
  • Interviews
  • performance appraisal
  • psychometric testing
  • ability tests

 

  1. Which statement best describes ‘360 degree feedback’? It is:
  • a method used to appraise employees
  • a system where managers give feedback to all their staff
  • a system where feedback on any individual is derived from peers, subordinates supervisors and occasionally, customers
  • a development tool

 

  1. Which of the following would not form part of a flexible reward package?
  • ability to ‘buy and sell’ leave days
  • non-pay items such as child care vouchers
  • cafeteria benefits
  • performance-related pay

 

  1. Which one of the following becomes a creative factor in production?
  • Land
  • Capital
  • Consumers
  • Human Resources

 

  1. People cast in the role of contributors to production are called __
  • Capitalist
  • Land owners
  • Human Resources
  • Consumers

 

  1. Wide range of abilities and attributes possessed by people are called as
  • Management
  • Human Resources
  • Entrepreneur
  • Intreprenuer

 

  1. Deployment of which resource is difficult to master
  • Human
  • Land
  • Capital
  • Natural

 

  1. The focus of Human Resource Management revolves around”?
  • Machine
  • Motivation
  • Money
  • Human

 

  1. Quality- oriented organisation primary concern centers around __?
  • Coordination
  • Communication
  • Human Resources
  • Discipline

 

  1. Quality goals require alignment with:
  • Production
  • Human Resources
  • Finance
  • Purchase

 

  1. Demand for human resources and management is created by
  • Expansion of industry
  • Shortage of labor
  • Abundance of capital
  • Consumer preferences

 

  1. Management function arises as a result of:
  • Consumer preferences
  • Abundance of capital
  • Expansion of industry
  • Shortage of labour

 

  1. Human Resource Management is primarily concerned with:
  • Sales
  • Dimensions of people
  • External environment
  • Cost discipline

 

  1. Human Resource Management aims to maximise employees as well as organisational
  • Effectiveness
  • Economy
  • Efficiency
  • Performativity

 

  1. The difference between human resource management and personnel management is:
  • Insignificant
  • Marginal
  • Narrow
  • Wide

 

  1. Human Resource Management function does not involve:
  • Recruitment
  • Selection
  • Cost control
  • Training

 

  1. Which one is not the specific goal of human resource management?
  • Attracting applicants
  • Separating employees
  • Retaining employees
  • Motivating employees

 

  1. Identify which one is an added specific goal of human resource management:
  • Retraining
  • Learning
  • Unlearning
  • Separating

 

  1. Identify the top most goal of human resource management?
  • Legal compliance
  • Competitive edge
  • Work force adaptability
  • Productivity

 

  1. To achieve goals organisations require employees:
  • Control
  • Direction
  • Commitment
  • Cooperation

 

  1. Human resource management helps improve
  • Production
  • Productivity
  • Profits
  • Power

 

  1. The amount of quality output for amount of input means
  • Productivity
  • Production
  • Sales increase
  • Increase in profits

 

  1. Responding to employees and involving them in decision making is referred to as:
  • Quality of work life
  • Autonomy
  • Empowerment
  • Preaction

 

  1. The main challenge for modern organisations is:
  • To remain ahead of the talent developments in the market
  • To retain the talent they have to realise that talented people are the real wealth of the organisation
  • To find ways to poach talent wherever they can find it
  • none of the above

 

  1. Talent management is:
  • In essence about a contract between the organisation and the employee
  • Also taking into account other factors that unlock value in the business
  • A combination of hard and soft issues (including the psycho-social contract) and taking the new economy into account (i.e. the knowledqe-based economy)
  • all of the above

 

  1. Key factors in skills development and talent management are:
  • A broad definition of talent to ensure inclusivity and
  • Finding a balance between staff development and making staff more employable
  • Compliance with the EE Act
  • Both (a) and (b)

 

  1. Most organisations for Talent Management
  • Will have the same skills requirements for jobs in the future as jobs do not change much
  • Experience a more disengaging workforce who are less loyal
  • Are effective in measuring performance and productivity
  • Have effective and pro-active talent management strategies
  1. Trends in Talent Management include:
  • An increase in post-high school training and education in the future
  • Management and leadership skills are seen as most valuable to modern and competitive organisations
  • Teaching jobs are very difficult to fill
  • All of the above

 

  1. Benefits of Talent Management include:
  • A reduction in the recruitment cycle
  • Creating a competitive advantage
  • Improved client relations and retention
  • (b) and (c)
Management Notes / Question Bank

SHRM Objectives Set 1

indiafreenotesby indiafreenotes1
  1. Identify the managerial function out of the following functions of HR managers.
  • Procurement
  • Development
  • Organizing
  • performance appraisal

 

  1. Which of the following is an example of operative function of HR managers?
  • Planning
  • Organising
  • Procurement
  • Controlling

 

  1. The scope of human resource management includes
  • Procurement
  • Development
  • Compensation
  • all of the above

 

  1. Human resource management is normally in nature
  • Proactive
  • Reactive
  • Combative
  • none of the above

 

  1. The human resource management functions aim at
  • ensuring that the human resources possess adequate capital, tool, equipment and material to perform the job successfully
  • helping the organisation deal with its employees in different stages. of employment
  • improving an organisation’s creditworthiness among financial institutions
  • none of the above

 

  1. Which of the ‘following aptly describes the role of line managers and staff advisors, namely HR professionals?
  • Staff advisors focus more on developing HR programmes while line managers are more involved in the implementation of those programmes.
  • Line managers are concerned more about developing HR programmes whereas staff advisors are more involved in implementing such programmes.
  • Staff advisors are solely responsible for developing, implementing and evaluating the HR programmes while line managers are not all involved in any matters concerning HR.
  • Line managers alone are responsible for developinq, implementing and evaluating the HR programmes while staff advisors are not all involved in any matters concerning HR.

 

  1. Human resource management is the formal part of an organisation responsible for all of the following aspects of the management of human resources except:
  • strategy development and analysis
  • systems, processes, and procedures
  • policy making, implementation, and enforcement
  • management of the organisation’s finances

 

  1. organisation relies on the following sources of capital
  • cultural, human and system capital
  • social, cultural and human capital
  • cultural, human and source capital
  • none of the above

 

  1. To address the challenges and opportunities they face organisations engage in’ a process of strategic management. Strategic management is:
  • short-term focused and composed of organisational strategy, including strategy formulation and implementation
  • long-term focused and composed of the organisation’s mission, vision and value statements
  • long-term focused and composed of organisational strategy, including strategy formulation and implementation
  • short-term focused and composed of the organisation’s mission, vision and value statements

 

  1. Strategic human resource management involves:
  • planning, foresight and analytical decision making
  • setting employment standards and policies
  • linking human resources with strategic objectives to improve performance
  • all of the above

 

  1. The balanced scorecard proposes that organisational success depends on:
  • a focus on only the internal environment of the organization
  • a constantly changing external environment
  • the belief that it is impossible to take a rationalist view of the organisation to make optimal choices
  • an ability to develop a complete list of cause and effect relationships driving a firm’s success

 

  1. Kochan and Barocci’s (1985) model of HRM has three elements. These elements are:
  • the external environment, the internal environment and human resource management
  • HRM/lR system effectiveness, the external environment and the internal environment
  • human resource management, the internal environment and HRM/lR system effectiveness.
  • the external environment, human resource management and HRM/lR system effectiveness

 

  1. The critical role of the SHRM Application Tool is to:
  • develop a better strategic management process to deal with the dynamic changing environment today’s organisations face
  • identify if the organisation has enough staff, if the staff need training, if the compensation practices are appropriate, and if jobs are designed correctly
  • identify and assess a narrow group of actions and plan how the organisation can overcome resistance to change
  • outline techniques, frameworks, and six steps that must be followed to effectively implement change in an organization

 

  1. In which decade did HRM originate?
  • 1950s
  • 1970s
  • 1980s
  • 1990s

 

  1. What are the ideas underpinning ‘soft’, ‘e commitment’, or ‘high-road’ HRM practices?
  • Labour needs to be treated as an asset to be invested in
  • Employees are a cost which should be minimized
  • A lack of mutuality existing between employer and employee
  • A disregard for unlocking discretionary effort

 

  1. Which consulting company is associated with the concept of talent management?
  • Price Waterhouse Coopers
  • Boston Consulting Group
  • Deloitte
  • McKinsey

 

  1. Why are employers interested in employee engagement?
  • To encourage employees to trust their managers
  • To make a quick profit
  • Because engaged employees are more motivated and prepared to give of their best to make the firm succeed
  • To make employees work harder for less

 

  1. Which of the following is a key HR role as defined by Ulrich et al (2009)?
  • Personnel administrator
  • Business ally
  • Payroll adviser
  • Organisational geographer

 

  1. The term ’emotional labour’ is associated with which author?
  • Arlie Hochschild
  • Stephen Fineman
  • David Sims
  • Yiannis Gabriel

 

  1. Why do some commentators claim that it is unlikely that the UK economy will become a knowledge economy?
  • The lack of IT education in schools
  • Culturally low in intelligence.
  • Historically low levels of company investment into research and development
  • Unions try to prevent knowledge transfer from management level to the broader workforce.

 

  1. What measures are typically involved in the rationalising of businesses?
  • Downsizing and. Layering
  • Expanding and Layering
  • Downsizing and Delayering
  • Expanding and Delayering

 

  1. What kinds of practices outlined below are typically associated with non-standard working and flexibility?
  • 9-5 working hours
  • The reduction in distinctions between standard and unsocial hours or standard and extra hours
  • Premium rates for unsocial hours
  • The voluntary agreement of unsocial hours working

 

  1. Which of the following is not a limitation of SWOT (Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunity, Threats) analysis?
  • Organisational strengths may not lead to competitive advantage
  • SWOT gives a one-shot view of a moving target
  • SWOT’s focus on the external environment is too broad and integrative
  • SWOT overemphasises a single dimension of strategy

 

  1. A marketing department that promises delivery quicker than the production department’s ability to produce is an example of a lack of understanding of the:
  • synergy of the business units.
  • need to maintain the reputation of the company.
  • organisational culture and leadership
  • interrelationships among functional areas and firm strategies

 

  1. XYZ Corp. is centering on the objective of low-cost, high quality, on-time production by curtailing idle productive facilities and workers. The XYZ Corp. is taking advantage of a system
  • Just-In-Time (JIT)
  • Last In, First Out (UFO)
  • First In, First Out (FIFO)
  • Highly mechanized

 

  1. Which of the following lists is comprised of support activities?
  • Human resource management, information systems, procurement, and firm infrastructure
  • Customer service, information systems, technology development, and procurement
  • Human resource management, technology development, customer service, and procurement
  • Human resource management, customer service, marketing and sales, and operations

 

  1. Although firm infrastructure is quite frequently viewed only as overhead expense, it can become a source of competitive advantage. Examples include all of the following except:
  • negotiating and maintaining ongoing relations with regulatory bodies
  • marketing expertise increasing a firm’s revenues and enabling it to enter new markets.
  • effective information systems contributing significantly to a firm’s overall cost leadership strategy.
  • top management providing a key role in collaborating with important customers.

 

  1. The competencies or skills that a firm employs to transform inputs into outputs are:
  • tangible resources
  • intangible resources
  • organisational capabilities
  • reputational resources

 

  1. An array of firm resources include interpersonal relations among managers in the firm, its culture, and its reputation with its customers and suppliers. Such competitive advantages are based upon:
  • physical uniqueness
  • path dependency
  • social complexity
  • tangible resources

 

  1. A company’s ability to meet its short-term financial obligations is measured by which of the following categories?
  • Liquidity ratios
  • Profitability ratios
  • Activity ratios
  • Leverage ratios

 

  1. The “balanced scorecard” supplies top managers with a ___________view of the business.
  • long-term financial
  • detailed and complex
  • simple and routine
  • fast but comprehensive

 

  1. In strategic human resource management, HR strategies are generally aligned with:
  • business strategy
  • marketing strategies
  • finance strategy
  • economic strategy

 

  1. Which of the following is closely associated with strategic human resource management?
  • Efficient utilisation of human resources
  • Attracting the best human resources
  • Providing the best possible training
  • All of the above

 

  1. Treating employees as precious human resources is the basis of the approach.
  • hard HRM
  • soft HRM
  • medium HRM
  • none of the above

 

  1. Strategic human resource management aims to achieve competitive advantage in the market through.
  • Price
  • Product
  • People
  • Process

 

  1. Wright and Snell made important contribution to the growth of:
  • Strategic fit model
  • Strategic labour allocation process model
  • Business-oriented model
  • none of the above

 

  1. Strategic management process usually consists of __ steps
  • Four
  • Five
  • Six
  • Seven

 

  1. One of the components of corporate level strategy is:
  • growth strategy’
  • portfolio strategy
  • parenting strategy
  • all of the above

 

  1. Creating an environment that facilitates a continuous and two-way exchange of information between the superiors and the subordinates is the core of:
  • High involvement management model
  • High commitment management model
  • High performance management model
  • none of the above

 

  1. Boundary crossing is an activity that
  • Creates internal organisational conflict between different departments as they compete to generate new practices
  • Occurs when organisations advance into new areas of the market
  • Undermines the integration of an organisation through the breakdown of the departmental boundaries.
  • Is focused upon achieving internal organisational integration between various organisational roles and units in order to generate creativity and synergy

 

  1. Procedures provide for an important element of consistency in managerial?
  • Direction
  • Strategy
  • Recruitment
  • Decision-making

 

  1. Why has the bureaucratic form of organisation been fundamentally questioned?
  • The pressures of globalisation have rendered it unsuitable.
  • Organisations are experiencing acute pressure to change and pursue innovation as a means of securing business growth.
  • Organisations have grown so large that it is almost impossible to create an effective bureaucracy to manage them.
  • Information Technology has made it redundant.

 

  1. Who famously adopted Taylor’s Scientific Management approach?
  • Ronald McDonald
  • Ralph Lauren
  • Henry Ford
  • James Dyson

 

  1. The most pertinent criticism of the empowerment concept concerns
  • the balance between customers’ wishes and efficiency.
  • the limited evidence for any shift towards a substantially. more empowered workforce.
  • the over-empowerment of employees
  • the limited theorising of the concept.

 

  1. One of the following attributes of potential employees is of heightened interest to employers when recruiting. Which one is it?
  • The candidate’s physical health
  • The candidate’s ability to deal with customers
  • The candidate’s ability to prepare for and cope with an uncertain future
  • The candidate’s organisational abilities

 

  1. Selection is concerned with:
  • The activity to select a suitable pool of candidates.
  • Always being stimulated by the departure of an employee.
  • Always ascertaining a candidate’s personality to ensure a suitable fit.
  • Applying appropriate techniques and methods to select a candidate.

 

  1. Which activities are not associated with workforce planning?
  • Forward planning reviewing internal and external labour supply
  • Assessing capability of workforce to develop any requisite skills
  • Time keeping
  • Identifying areas where recruitment will be needed

 

  1. Why is job analysis so infused with organisational politics?
  • Because it is a process which could lead to contraction of employees in a department and therefore diminishing its power base
  • A result of interdepartmental rivalry
  • Because it is not an objective activity
  • Because it is a process through which companies try to shed labour

 

  1. What do rational processes to recruitment and selection typically ignore?
  • Labour market demand
  • Wages
  • The time it takes to get to work
  • The use of power and micropolitics by managers

 

  1. Which is the most popular method of recruiting applicants to jobs?
  • Radio and TV advertisement
  • Corporate website
  • Employee referral schemes
  • Commercial job boards
Question Bank

Entrepreneurship Development Objectives Set 1

indiafreenotesby indiafreenotes1

Question No: 1

Which of the following shows the process of creating something new?

a) Business model

b) Modeling

c) Creative flexibility

d) Innovation

Question No: 2

Which one of the following gives suggestions for new product and also help to market new products?

a) Existing products and services

b) Federal government

c) Distribution Channels

d) Consumers

Question No: 3

Which of the following is used by entrepreneurs to acquire experience in an international market before making a major commitment?

a) Merger

b) Minority Interest

c) Joint venture

d) Majority interest

Question No:4

GATT is established in 1947, under:

a) German leadership

b) U.S. leadership

c) French leadership

d) U.K. leadership

Question No: 5

The entrepreneur was distinguished from capital provider in:

a) Middle ages

b) 17th century

c) 18th century

d) 19th and 20th century

Question No: 6

A person who managed large project was termed as the entrepreneur in the _________.

a) Earliest period

b) Middle ages

c) 17th century

d) 19th and 20th century

Question No: 7

What is the process by which individuals pursue opportunities without regard to resources they currently control?

a) Startup management

b) Entrepreneurship

c) Financial analysis

d) Feasibility planning

Question No: 8

Having less than 50 percent of equity share in an international venture is called:

a) Joint Venture

b) Majority interest

c) Minority interest

d) Exporting

Question No: 9

Having more than 50% ownership position that provides the entrepreneur with managerial control is called:

a) Joint venture

b) Majority interest

c) Horizontal merger

c) Diversified activity merger

Question No: 10

Which one of the following is the process of entrepreneurs developing new products that over time make current products obsolete?

a) New business model

b) Anatomization

c) None of the given options

d) Creative destruction

Question No: 11

Which of the following factors is the most important in forcing U.S companies to focus on new product development and increased productivity?

a) Entrepreneurship

b) Hyper competition

c) Governmental laws

d) Organizational culture

Question No: 12

Which of the following is alternatively called corporate venturing?

a) Entrepreneurship

b) Intrapreneurship

c) Act of stating a new venture

d) Offering new products by an existing company

Question No: 13

Individuals influencing an entrepreneur’s career choice and style are known as which of the following?

a) Moral-support network

b) Role model

c) Professional support network

d) Support system

Question No: 14

The activity which occurs when the new venture is started is called:

a) Motivation

b) Business skills

c) Departure point

d) Goal orientation

Question No: 15

The level at which an individual is viewed by society is called:

a) Financial status

b) Qualification

c) Social status

d) Achievement

Question No: 16

Which one of the following is an important source of idea generation due to their familiarity with the needs of market?

a) Existing products and services

b) Distribution channels

c) Federal government

d) Consumers

Question No: 17

Members of distribution channels are excellent sources for new ideas because:

a) They earn a handsome profit from new business

b) They are familiar with the needs of the market

c) They do not bother if entrepreneur bears a loss

d) They have well-developed sales force

Question No: 18

Which one of the following is the most important characteristic of a successful business website?

a) Innovation

b) Speed

c) Graphics

d) Products

Question No: 19

Which one of the following is the next stage to the Concept Stage of Product Planning and Development Process?

a) Idea Stage

b) Product Planning Stage

c) Product Development Stage

d) Test Marketing Stage

Question No: 20

SBA stands for:

a) Small business accountants

b) Small business administration

c) Small business adequacy

d) Small business advisors

Question No: 21

Why should an entrepreneur do a feasibility study for starting a new venture

a) To identify possible sources of funds

b) To see if there are possible barriers to success

c) To estimate the expected sales

d) To explore potential customers

Question No: 22

Information regarding all of the following is related to operations, EXCEPT:

a) Location

b) Promotion

c) Raw materials

d) Labor skills

Question No:23

A performance and credit rating scheme has been launched by the MSME Ministry to assess creditworthiness and capabilities of industries in the sector. What is it called?

(a) Performance and Credit Rating Scheme

(b) Zero Defect Zero Effect Certification

(c) Performance and Economy Rating Scheme

(d) None of the above

Question No: 24

A Micro Enterprise is an enterprise where investment in plant and machinery does not exceed (According to MSMED Act, 2006):

(a) Rs. 15 Lakh

(b) Rs. 20 Lakh

(c) Rs. 25 Lakh

(d) Rs. 30 Lakh

Question No: 25

EDP (Entrepreneurship Development Programmes) is required to help:

(a) Existing entrepreneurs

(b) First generation entrepreneurs

(c) Future generations entrepreneurs

(d) None of the above

Question No: 26

A corporate manager who starts a new initiative for their company which entails setting up a new distinct business unit and board of directors can be regarded as?

(a) Ecopreneur

(b) Technopreneur

(c) Intrapreneur

(d) Social Entrepreneur

Question No: 27

A women entrepreneur is supposed to have a minimum financial interest in share capital of entrepreneur’s enterprise:

(a) 35 per cent

(b) 51 per cent

(c) 25 per cent

(d) None of the above

Question No: 28

Family business always interested to handover the change of his business to:

(a) Indian Administration Officers

(b) Professional Managers

(c) Next generation

(d) None of the above

Question No: 29

A corporate manager who starts a new initiative for their company which entails setting up a new distinct business unit and board of directors can be regarded as?

(a) Ecopreneur

(b) Technopreneur

(c) Intrapreneur

(d) Social Entrepreneur

Question No: 30

Venture capital is concerned with:

(a) New project having potential for higher profit

(b) New project of high technology

(c) New project having high risk

(d) All the above.

Question Bank

Project Management objectives Set 2

indiafreenotesby indiafreenotes1

Q1. A communication management plan identifies the relevant information that should be communicated to:

  • The project team.
  • The project stakeholders.
  • The project board.
  • The project sponsor.

Q2. Which one of the following statements is true?

  • Independent reviews and quality audits form part of quality assurance to ensure the project manager delivers on time and to budget.
  • Quality assurance provides confidence to stakeholders that requirements for quality will be exceeded.
  • Quality control verifies that the project deliverables conform to specification, are fit for purpose and meet stakeholder expectations.
  • Quality planning enables the project manager to manage the trade-off between customer expectations and budget.

Q3. Project risk management is best described as:

  • Managing responses to threats.
  • Identifying and acknowledging threats and opportunities.
  • Planning responses to threats.
  • Minimising threats and maximising opportunities.

Q4. Which one of the following best describes a project issue?

  • A major problem that requires formal escalation.
  • A problem that the project manager has to deal with on a day-to-day basis.
  • An uncertain event that may or may not occur.
  • An opportunity that occurs through change control.

Q5. Scheduling can best be defined as the process used to determine:

  • overall project duration.
  • project cost estimating.
  • the project management plan.
  • sub-contractor’s responsibilities.

Q6. Which one of the following statements is true?

  • An increase in project scope is likely to increase project cost.
  • A decrease in the project time is likely to increase project quality.
  • An increase in the project quality requirements is likely to decrease project cost.
  • A decrease in the project cost is likely to decrease project time.

Q7. Which one of the following statements best defines the purpose of a Product Breakdown Structure (PBS)?

  • To define the hierarchy of deliverables that are required to be produced on the project.
  • To define how the products are produced by identifying derivations and dependencies.
  • To establish the extent of work required prior to project commissioning and the handover.
  • To identify the health and safety strategies and procedures to be used on the project.

Q8. Which one of the following is least likely to be a success criteria?

  • A target for the project to receive zero change requests.
  • The date by which the project is to be completed.
  • Delivery of products that meet required specifications.
  • The awarding of bonuses to senior management.

Q9. Which one of the following is a valid project Key Performance Indicator (KPI)?

  • Staff appraisals.
  • Management buy in.
  • Milestone achievement.
  • Master schedule.

Q10. Which one of the following statements is true?

  • The business case is owned by the sponsor and is created during the concept phase of the project life cycle.
  • The business case is owned by the project manager and is created during the concept phase of the project life cycle.
  • The business case is owned by the sponsor and is created during definition phase of the project life cycle.
  • The business case is owned by the project manager and is created during the definition phase of the project life cycle.

Q11. Who owns the Project Management Plan (PMP)?

  • The project team.
  • The chief executive.
  • The project manager.
  • The project support office.

Q12. Which one of the following best describes users?

  • Providers of both strategic and tactical direction to the project.
  • Those intended to receive benefits or operate outputs.
  • Facilitators of an appropriate issue resolution procedure.
  • Those providing full-time commitment to the project.

Q13. Which statement best describes a responsibility of the project manager:

  • to be the sole source of expertise for estimating techniques on cost and time.
  • to deliver the project objectives to enable benefits to be realised.
  • to take ultimate accountability for the delivery of the business benefits.
  • to delegate all accountability for managing time, cost and quality to team leaders.

Q14. A project is typically defined in terms of scope, time, cost and which other parameter?

  • Benefits.
  • Quality.
  • Tolerance.
  • Controls.

Q15. Which one of the following statements is true?

  • Business-as-usual activities cannot be improved.
  • Business-as-usual activities are more difficult to manage than projects.
  • Projects are transient endeavours that bring about change to business-as-usual.
  • A project is always the starting point for operation refinement.

Q16. What is defined as “the ability to influence and align others towards a common purpose”?

  • Teamwork.
  • Motivation.
  • Management.
  • Leadership.

Q17. Which one is a true statement relating to project communications?

  1. A project sponsor is responsible for all communication methods and media.
  2. Different stakeholders typically have different communication needs.
  3. It is best to have a standard set of project reports used for every project.
  4. Email is the only way to communicate with large numbers of people.

Q18. In project management, the term quality is best defined as:

  • inspection, testing and measurement.
  • reviews and audits.
  • fitness for purpose of deliverables.
  • professionally-bound project reports.

Q19. The main outcome of risk identification, in a risk management process, is to:

  • identify and determine the relative importance of the project risks.
  • identify and describe all risks that might occur on the project.
  • identify and determine the responses to the project risks.
  • identify and describe risks that have occurred on previous projects.

Q20. Which one of the following is not considered in resource management?

  • Identifying resources.
  • Influencing resources.
  • Assigning resources to activities.
  • Matching resources to the schedule.

Q21. Which one of the following does project change control primarily seek to ensure?

  • All variance to the project scope is evaluated.
  • No reduction in the perceived quality of the project outcome.
  • Management costs of the project do not increase.
  • Any decrease in the scoped deliverable of the project is rejected.

Q22. Which one of the following is captured in the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)?

  • The life cycle phases.
  • The logical order of tasks.
  • The scope of the project.
  • Project costs.

Q23. Project reporting can best be defined as:

  • informing stakeholders about the project.
  • storing and archiving of project information.
  • gathering stakeholder feedback.
  • collecting project information.

Q24. Which one of the following statements best defines an estimate?

  • An approximation of project time and cost targets, refined throughout the project life cycle.
  • A prediction of a future condition or event based on information or knowledge available now.
  • The value of useful work done at any given point in a project to give a measure of progress.
  • A situation that affects or influences the outcome of the project expressed in time or cost terms.

Q25. The justification for the investment to be made in a project is documented in the:

  • Cost Breakdown Structure.
  • procurement strategy.
  • business case.
  • Project Management Plan.

Q26. Which one of the following is a responsibility of the project steering group/board?

  • To identify potential problems for the project team to solve.
  • To provide strategic direction and guidance to the sponsor.
  • To manage the project team in all daily activities.
  • To receive and consider daily reports from team members.

Q27. One of the reasons a project life cycle is split into phases is to:

  • facilitate formal go/no-go decision making during the project.
  • balance the costs of work in each phase of project development.
  • mirror the major deployments of resources throughout the project.
  • chunk work into time periods of similar durations.

Q28. Which of the following best describes a project environment?

  • The type of organisation concerned with implementation.
  • The structured method used to control the project.
  • The context within which a project is undertaken.
  • An understanding of the risks involved in the project.

Q29. Which one of the following statements best describes a project?

  • A project is a set of tools and techniques often used when delivering organisational change.
  • A project is the sum of activities needed to remove uncertainty from a unique piece of work.
  • A unique transient endeavour undertaken to achieve a desired outcome.
  • A project is a method of planning work.

Q30. The document that identifies what information needs to be shared, to whom, why, when and how is called the:

  • communication management plan.
  • stakeholder mapping grid.
  • document distribution schedule.
  • responsibility assignment matrix.

Q31. An important aim of a post-project review is to:

  • validate overall progress to date against the budget and schedule.
  • capture learning and document it for future usage.
  • ensure acceptance of all permanent documentation, signed by the sponsor.
  • establish that project benefits have been identified.

Q32. The process that evaluates overall project performance to provide confidence is called:

  • quality assurance.
  • quality planning.
  • quality control.
  • quality audit.

Q33. Which one of the following statements about the project risk register is false?

  • It facilitates the review and monitoring of risks.
  • It facilitates the risk appetite.
  • It facilitates the recording of risk responses.
  • It facilitates the recording of risks.

Q34. Which one of the following statements best defines procurement?

  • A technique to establish the best approach for obtaining the resources for the project.
  • A group of interrelated resources and activities that transform inputs into outputs.
  • The description of the purpose, form and components to support delivery of a product.
  • The process by which products and services required for the project are acquired.

Q35. Once a change has been requested what is the next step in the change control process?

  • Evaluate the change.
  • Advise the sponsor.
  • Update the change log.
  • Update the project plan.

Q36. A Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM) can be used to:

  • define the terms of reference of the project manager.
  • define the limits of the project sponsor’s responsibilities.
  • allocate risk management response activities to project personnel.
  • allocate work packages to those responsible for project work.

Q37. An Organisational Breakdown Structure (OBS) is used to identify:

  • the reporting structure and current availability of all individuals in the project.
  • technical ability and line of communication for all individuals in the project.
  • lines of communication and responsibility for all the individual managers in the project.
  • the reporting structure and lines of communication for all individuals in the projects.

Q38. Which one of the following best describes project success criteria?

  • Actively seeking some senior management support.
  • Measures by which the success of the project is judged.
  • Achievement of milestones.
  • A motivated project team.

Q39. Comparative estimating uses:

  • current data from similar projects.
  • historic data from all projects.
  • historic data from similar projects.
  • current data from all projects.

Q40. Which one of the following best describes a project stakeholder?

  • A party who is concerned about the project going ahead.
  • A party with an interest or role in the project or is impacted by the project.
  • A party who has a vested interest in the outcome of the project.
  • A party who has a financial stake in the organisation managing the project.

Q41. The main purpose of the Project Management Plan is to:

  • provide justification for undertaking the project in terms of evaluating the benefit, cost and risk of alternative options.
  • ensure the project sponsor has tight control of the project manager’s activity.
  • document the outcomes of the planning process and provide the reference document for managing the project.
  • document the outcome of the risk, change and configuration management processes.

Q42. Who has ultimate responsibility for project risk?

  • Steering group.
  • Risk owner.
  • Project sponsor.
  • Project manager.

Q43. When a project has completed the handover and closure phase:

  • the project deliverables are ready for commissioning.
  • the project deliverables are ready for handing over to the users.
  • the project documentation must be disposed of.
  • the capability is now in place for the benefits to be realised.

Q44. Which one of the following illustrates why effective project management is beneficial to an organisation?

  • It utilises resources as and when required under direction of a project manager.
  • It advocates employing a consultancy firm which specialises in managing change.
  • It recommends using only highly skilled people in the project team.
  • It ensures that the chief executive is accountable for the achievement of the defined benefits.

Q45. A key aspect of managing a project involves:

  • defining which operational systems to put in place.
  • identifying routine tasks.
  • ensuring ongoing operations are maintained.
  • planning to achieve defined objectives.

Q46. Which one of the following statements best defines teamwork?

  • People working collaboratively towards a common goal.
  • Developing skills that will enhance project performance.
  • Gathering the right people together to work on a project.
  • Establishing vision and direction towards a common purpose.

Q47. A review undertaken to decide whether a project should proceed into its next phase is known as a:

  • gate review.
  • feasibility study.
  • milestone review.
  • evaluation review.

Q48. Which one of the following statements best describes the use of an issue log?

  • A summary of all possible alternative resolutions of an issue.
  • A summary of all the project issues, their analysis and status.
  • A tool to ensure that a process is in place for capturing all issues.
  • A tool to ensure that the issue management process is adhered to.

Q49. The main aim of a project risk management process should be to:

  • identify project risks and then manage them appropriately.
  • identify all project risks and transfer them immediately.
  • identify all the things that are threats or opportunities on a project.
  • satisfy the organisation’s project management process.

Q50. What is a visual representation of a project’s planned activities against a calendar called?

  • A Gantt chart.
  • A critical path network.
  • A product flow diagram.
  • A Pareto chart.

Q51. Configuration management is best described as:

  • control in the implementation of changes to project schedules.
  • an organisation to review proposed changes to the project deliverables.
  • quality control of project deliverables and documentation.
  • creation, maintenance and controlled change of the project deliverables.

Q52. A Cost Breakdown Structure (CBS) shows costs assigned to:

  • individual work packages using the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS).
  • individual resources using the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS).
  • individual resources using the Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM).
  • individual deliverables using the Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM)

Q53. The accuracy of an estimate should:

  • Decrease as a project progresses through its life cycle.
  • Increase as a project progresses through its life cycle.
  • Stay constant throughout the project life cycle.
  • Vary independently of where the project is in its life cycle.

Q54. Which one of the following best defines a benefit?

  • A positive result of stakeholder management.
  • The successful management of a project.
  • An improvement resulting from project deliverables.
  • The successful delivery of project reports and updates.

Q55. Which one of the following is true for the Project Management Plan (PMP)?

  • The Project Management Plan is developed by the project manager and team and owned by the sponsor.
  • A draft of the Project Management Plan is developed by the sponsor at the same time as the business case.
  • The Project Management Plan is developed by the sponsor and owned by the project manager.
  • The Project Management Plan is developed by the project manager and team and owned by the project manager.

Q56. Who are project team members primarily accountable to?

  • External stakeholders.
  • The end users.
  • The finance director.
  • The project manager.

Q57. The phases of a project life cycle are:

  • Starting, planning, control and closing.
  • Concept, definition, development, handover and closure.
  • Initiation, definition, planning, monitoring and operations.
  • Concept, definition, implementation and operations.

Q58. A portfolio can best be defined as:

  • A group of projects and programmes carried out within an organisation.
  • A group of programmes carried out under the sponsorship of an organisation.
  • A group of projects carried out under the sponsorship of an organisation.
  • A range of products and services offered by an organisation.

Q59. Which one of the following best describes project management?

  • Using APM’s Body of Knowledge 6th edition as a guide to all projects.
  • Employing a project manager who has undertaken similar projects.
  • Utilising team members who can work on a project full time.
  • Application of processes and methods throughout the project life cycle.

Q60. Which structure shows the reporting relationships and communications channels for a project?

  • Work Breakdown Structure.
  • Organisational Breakdown Structure.
  • Product Breakdown Structure.
  • Responsibility assignment structure.

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